WBCS MAIN 2018 P-5 Polity MCQ
WBCS MAIN 2018 P-5 Polity One Liner Questions
TOPIC 1: CONSTITUTIONAL HISTORY & ACTS
1. Which Act sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal?
Ans: Government of India Act, 1935
2. Which feature was NOT part of the Government of India Act, 1935 – Bicameral legislature, Dyarchy at centre and provinces, Provincial autonomy, or All India Federation?
Ans: Dyarchy at centre and the provinces
3. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, with whom were the residuary powers vested?
Ans: Governor-General
4. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, what jurisdictions did the Federal Court possess?
Ans: All the above (original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction)
5. The system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was introduced by which Charter?
Ans: Charter of 1726
6. Under the Charter of 1687, how was the Mayor of the Mayor’s Court at Madras appointed?
Ans: Elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year
7. In which year was the East India Company established by the British Crown?
Ans: 1600 AD
8. Under which plan did the British concede the demand for partition of India?
Ans: Mountbatten Plan, 1947
9. When was the Quit India movement declared by the Indian National Congress?
Ans: August 8, 1942
TOPIC 2: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
10. When was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held?
Ans: December 9, 1946
11. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
TOPIC 3: PREAMBLE
12. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the ‘Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution’?
Ans: In re Keshwandana Bharti (Keshavananda Bharati case)
13. From which country did the Indian Constitution borrow the ideas of the Preamble?
Ans: Constitution of USA
TOPIC 4: NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION
14. From which country did India borrow the scheme of federation i.e., ‘Union of States’?
Ans: Canada
15. In S.R. Bommai’s case, which Judge observed that democracy and federalism are basic features of the Constitution?
Ans: P.B. Sawant, J
TOPIC 5: CITIZENSHIP
16. Which Article first states that a person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state shall not be a citizen?
Ans: Article 9
TOPIC 6: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
17. Against which authority can writs NOT be issued under Article 12 for enforcement of fundamental rights – High Court, Port Trust, Income Tax Tribunal, or Delhi Municipal Corporation?
Ans: High Court
18. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment under Article 368 was “law” within the meaning of Article 13?
Ans: Golaknath v. State of Punjab
19. What does the term “law in force” in Article 13(3) include?
Ans: Both statutory law and customs and usages
20. In which case was it held that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
Ans: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
21. In which case did Justice Bhagwati propagate the new concept of equality under Article 14, i.e., protection against arbitrariness?
Ans: E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
22. Who decides the group of people to constitute backward class to satisfy Article 15(4)?
Ans: The State
23. Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office’ apply to which type of employment?
Ans: Public employment
24. Under which Article is Untouchability abolished and its practice made punishable?
Ans: Article 17
25. On which freedom can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State?
Ans: Speech and expression
26. Which right is guaranteed to citizens under Article 19 – Right to vote, Right to contest election, Right to assemble peacefully without arms, or Right to citizenship?
Ans: Right to assemble peacefully without arms
27. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that sovereign immunity will not apply for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights?
Ans: Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
28. Articles 20-22 relating to right to life and personal liberty are available to whom?
Ans: Citizens and non-citizens
29. Which is NOT included in the right to personal liberty – Right to free legal aid, Right not to be tortured, Right to equality of wages, or Freedom from arrest?
Ans: Right to equality of wages
30. What is the correct chronological sequence of cases on personal liberty – A.K. Gopalan, A.D.M. Jabalpur, Maneka Gandhi?
Ans: 3,2,1 (A.K. Gopalan, A.D.M. Jabalpur, Maneka Gandhi)
31. The 86th Amendment provides for free and compulsory education to children of which age group?
Ans: 6 to 14 years
32. Which section of the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was declared ultra vires in A.K. Gopalan case?
Ans: Section 14
33. According to Article 22(4), detention without the intercession of Advisory Board cannot exceed what period?
Ans: Three months
34. On which ground can Right to freedom of religion NOT be restricted – public order, security of state, health, or morality?
Ans: Security of state
35. Under Article 30(1), who has the right to establish and administer educational institutions?
Ans: Religious and linguistic minorities
36. Petitions under Article 32 are subject to Res judicata except which writ?
Ans: Habeas corpus
37. By which Amendment was the Right to Property dropped from Fundamental Rights?
Ans: 44th Amendment
38. Which Fundamental Right did Dr. Ambedkar describe as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”?
Ans: Right to constitutional remedies
39. Who can suspend the right under Article 32?
Ans: The President when proclamation of emergency is in operation
40. Which Amendment inserted Article 31C protecting laws giving effect to Directive Principles under Article 39(b) and (c)?
Ans: 25th Amendment
41. Which Article provides that Parliament will determine the extent of fundamental rights for Armed Forces members?
Ans: Article 33
42. According to Article 35, who has the power to make laws on matters under Articles 16(3), 32(3), 33 and 34?
Ans: The Parliament
TOPIC 7: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
43. From which country did the framers borrow the concept of Directive Principles?
Ans: Constitution of Ireland
44. Who opined that “Directive Principles are the conscience of the Constitution embodying its social philosophy”?
Ans: Granville Austin
45. Match: Article 39A, 40, 41, 44 with provisions – Equal justice, Village panchayat, Right to work, Uniform Civil Code?
Ans: 39A-Equal justice, 40-Village panchayat, 41-Right to work, 44-Uniform Civil Code
46. According to Article 45, the State shall provide early childhood care and education to children below what age?
Ans: 6 years
TOPIC 8: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
47. From which country did India adopt the concept of Fundamental Duties?
Ans: Erstwhile USSR
48. How many duties are conferred on citizens under Article 51A?
Ans: 11
TOPIC 9: PARLIAMENT
49. The Parliament of India consists of which three institutions?
Ans: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
50. What is the total strength of the Council of States?
Ans: 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
51. Who has the power to allocate seats in the House of the People to States and constituencies?
Ans: Parliament
52. For how many days can Rajya Sabha withhold a Money Bill?
Ans: 14 days
53. What does prorogation of a House mean?
Ans: The session of the House has been terminated
54. What is the maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament?
Ans: 14
55. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from States?
Ans: 530
56. When both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are vacant, who appoints the person to perform Speaker’s functions?
Ans: The President
57. After how many days of absence without permission may a House declare a member’s seat vacant?
Ans: 60 days
58. Which is the largest committee of Parliament of India?
Ans: Estimates Committee
TOPIC 10: UNION EXECUTIVE – PRESIDENT
59. Who does the President of India nominate – Chief Election Commissioner, CAG, Chief Justice of India, or All of the above?
Ans: Comptroller and Auditor General of India
60. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the President’s pardon power is independent and only its scope can be examined by court?
Ans: Kehar Singh v. Union of India
61. Who discharges the functions of President when both President and Vice-President offices are vacant?
Ans: Chief Justice of India
62. The President’s power to issue an ordinance is what type of power?
Ans: Legislative power
63. The President has power to dissolve which House?
Ans: Lok Sabha only
64. In which Houses can impeachment charges against the President be preferred?
Ans: By either House of Parliament
65. In which case did the Supreme Court observe that Article 74(1) is mandatory and President cannot exercise power without aid and advice of Council of Ministers?
Ans: Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab
TOPIC 11: PRIME MINISTER & COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
66. What happens on the resignation or death of the Prime Minister?
Ans: The ministry is dissolved
TOPIC 12: STATE EXECUTIVE – GOVERNOR
67. Which Article gives the Governor power to grant pardon and commute sentences?
Ans: Article 161
68. In the performance of his duties, is the Governor answerable to the court of law?
Ans: No, he is not answerable to the court of law
TOPIC 13: STATE LEGISLATURE
69. On whose recommendation can the Parliament abolish the Legislative Council in a State?
Ans: State Legislative Assembly
70. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by which method?
Ans: System of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
TOPIC 14: SUPREME COURT AND JUDICIARY
71. What is the minimum number of judges to constitute a Constitutional Bench for interpreting the Constitution?
Ans: 5
72. Who is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?
Ans: The President of India
73. Until what age does a Supreme Court Judge hold office?
Ans: 65 years
74. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that primacy should be given to the opinion of constitutional functionaries in appointment of judges?
Ans: Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
75. Who first evolved the doctrine of prospective overruling?
Ans: Chief Justice Subba Rao in Golaknath v. State of Punjab
76. Under which jurisdiction does the Supreme Court hear disputes between States?
Ans: Original jurisdiction
77. Which Article provides for adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
Ans: Article 262
78. Where are disputes regarding election of President and Vice-President filed and settled?
Ans: In the Supreme Court
TOPIC 15: CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS
79. Which Article deals with repugnancy between Central Law and State Law?
Ans: Article 254
80. The Central Government can issue directions to States with regard to which Lists?
Ans: Union List and Concurrent List
81. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly” – which doctrine does this relate to?
Ans: Colourable legislation
82. Which Article provides for adjudication of inter-State river water disputes?
Ans: Article 262
TOPIC 16: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS
83. Which emergency has been declared the maximum number of times?
Ans: President’s Rule in a State
84. What is the maximum period for which President’s Rule under Article 356 can remain valid in a State?
Ans: One year
TOPIC 17: AMENDMENTS
85. The 86th Amendment providing right to education applies to children of which age group?
Ans: 6 to 14 years
86. Which Amendment dropped the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights?
Ans: 44th Amendment
87. Which Amendment inserted Article 31C in 1971?
Ans: 25th Amendment
88. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses, what must the President do?
Ans: Shall give his assent
TOPIC 18: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
89. What does the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deal with?
Ans: Defections
90. Who appoints the Chairman and members of Union and State Public Service Commissions?
Ans: The President and Governor of respective States
91. What is the term of office for members of UPSC?
Ans: Six years or till they attain the age of 65 years
92. For conduct of elections to which bodies is the Election Commission responsible?
Ans: Parliament, State Legislature, Offices of President and Vice President
93. Who can remove members of UPSC before expiry of term?
Ans: President on recommendation of Supreme Court
94. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
Ans: The President
95. Who holds office at the pleasure of the President – Speaker of Lok Sabha, CAG, Attorney General, or Chairman of UPSC?
Ans: Attorney General of India
96. Which Article provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General?
Ans: Article 148
97. Who has the right to speak and participate in Parliamentary proceedings without voting right?
Ans: Attorney General of India
98. Under Article 321, who has the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission?
Ans: Parliament
99. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
Ans: The Vice-President
TOPIC 19: SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION
100. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
Ans: 22
📊 TOPIC SUMMARY
| SL No. | Topic Name | Question Numbers |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Constitutional History & Acts | 1-9 |
| 2 | Constituent Assembly | 10-11 |
| 3 | Preamble | 12-13 |
| 4 | Nature of Indian Constitution | 14-15 |
| 5 | Citizenship | 16 |
| 6 | Fundamental Rights | 17-42 |
| 7 | Directive Principles | 43-46 |
| 8 | Fundamental Duties | 47-48 |
| 9 | Parliament | 49-58 |
| 10 | Union Executive – President | 59-65 |
| 11 | Prime Minister & Council of Ministers | 66 |
| 12 | State Executive – Governor | 67-68 |
| 13 | State Legislature | 69-70 |
| 14 | Supreme Court and Judiciary | 71-78 |
| 15 | Centre-State Relations | 79-82 |
| 16 | Emergency Provisions | 83-84 |
| 17 | Amendments | 85-88 |
| 18 | Constitutional Bodies | 89-99 |
| 19 | Schedules of Constitution | 100 |
Total Questions: 100
WBCS MAIN 2018 P-5 Polity MCQ
TOPIC 1: CONSTITUTIONAL HISTORY & ACTS (9 Questions)
1. Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (B) Government of India Act, 1935
2. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935?
(A) Bicameral legislature
(B) Dyarchy at centre and the provinces
(C) Provincial autonomy
(D) All India Federation
Ans: (B) Dyarchy at centre and the provinces
3. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the
(A) British Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) Governor-General
Ans: (D) Governor-General
4. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had
(A) original jurisdiction only
(B) appellate jurisdiction only
(C) advisory jurisdiction only
(D) All the above
Ans: (D) All the above
5. For the first time, the system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was introduced by the Charter of
(A) 1608
(B) 1683
(C) 1726
(D) 1833
Ans: (C) 1726
6. Under the Charter of 1687, a Mayor’s Court was established at Madras. The Mayor had to be
(A) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year
(B) nominated by the company
(C) senior-most Alderman to be next year
(D) nominated by the company on the recommendation of the outgoing Mayor
Ans: (A) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year
7. The East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year
(A) 1600 AD
(B) 1605 AD
(C) 1726 AD
(D) 1857 AD
Ans: (A) 1600 AD
8. The British, conceded the demand for partition of India under
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Mountbatten Plan, 1947
(C) Simla Pact, 1945
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan
Ans: (B) Mountbatten Plan, 1947
9. Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National Congress in Bombay session of AICC on
(A) August 8, 1942
(B) August 9, 1945
(C) July 18, 1947
(D) January 26, 1947
Ans: (A) August 8, 1942
TOPIC 2: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY (2 Questions)
10. The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on
(A) December 9, 1946
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) January 26, 1946
Ans: (A) December 9, 1946
11. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (C) Dr Rajendra Prasad
TOPIC 3: PREAMBLE (2 Questions)
12. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that ‘Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution’?
(A) In re Keshwandana Bharti
(B) In re Golaknath case
(C) In re Swarm Singh
(D) In re Maneka Gandhi
Ans: (A) In re Keshwandana Bharti
13. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the
(A) Canadian Constitution
(B) Italian Constitution
(C) French Constitution
(D) Constitution of USA
Ans: (D) Constitution of USA
TOPIC 4: NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION (2 Questions)
14. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. ‘Union of States’ from which country?
(A) Ireland
(B) Canada
(C) USA
(D) Russia
Ans: (B) Canada
15. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S R Bommai’s case by
(A) J.S. Verma, J
(B) S.R. Pandian, J
(C) P.B. Sawant, J
(D) A M Ahmadi, J
Ans: (C) P.B. Sawant, J
TOPIC 5: CITIZENSHIP (1 Question)
16. Which of the following Articles is the first to state that a person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state shall not be a citizen?
(A) Article 9
(B) Article 8
(C) Article 7
(D) Article 5
Ans: (A) Article 9
TOPIC 6: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (26 Questions)
17. Against which of the following, writs cannot be issued under Article 12 for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
(A) High Court
(B) Port Trust
(C) Income Tax Tribunal
(D) Delhi Municipal Corporation
Ans: (A) High Court
18. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was “law” within the meaning of Article 13?
(A) Shankar Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Ans: (C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
19. The term “law in force” in clause (3) of Article 13 means
(A) only statutory law
(B) customs and usages only
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) newly formed public order only
Ans: (C) Both (A) & (B)
20. In which of the following cases, was it held that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
(A) Jagan Nath v. Union of India
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
Ans: (C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
21. In which of the following cases was the new concept of equality under Article 14, i.e., protection against arbitrariness, propagated by Justice Bhagwati?
(A) D.K. Bakshi v. Union of India
(B) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
(C) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India
(D) Air India v. Nargeesh Mirza
Ans: (B) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
22. The group of people in the State to constitute backward class to satisfy Article 15(4) is left to the decision of
(A) the Court
(B) the President of India
(C) the State
(D) the Parliament
Ans: (C) the State
23. Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office’ applies to
(A) public employment
(B) private employment
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) public employment
24. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Ans: (D) Article 17
25. On which of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State?
(A) Speech and expression
(B) Peaceful assembly
(C) Association or union
(D) Movement
Ans: (A) Speech and expression
26. Which one of the undermentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as freedom of religion under Article 19?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to assemble peacefully without arms
(D) Right to citizenship
Ans: (C) Right to assemble peacefully without arms
27. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights?
(A) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
(B) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
(C) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) Nilabeti Behera v. State of Orissa
Ans: (A) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
28. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to
(A) citizen only.
(B) citizens and non-citizens.
(C) natural persons as well as artificial persons.
(D) all persons who have juristic personality.
Ans: (B) citizens and non-citizens.
29. The following are not included in the right to personal liberty:
(A) Right to free legal aid
(B) Right not to be tortured
(C) Right to equality of wages
(D) Freedom from arrest
Ans: (C) Right to equality of wages
30. Arrange the decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence:
(1) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(2) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla
(3) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(A) 1,2,3
(B) 3,2,1
(C) 2,3,1
(D) 2,1,3
Ans: (B) 3,2,1
31. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 inserted the provision for the right to education which provides for the obligation of the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. The age of such children should be
(A) 0 to 12 years
(B) 6 to 14 years
(C) 7 to 12 years
(D) 12 to 18 years
Ans: (B) 6 to 14 years
32. Which section of Preventive Detention Act, 1950, was declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras?
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 17
(D) Section 19
Ans: (B) Section 14
33. According to Article 22(4), no detention of any person is possible without the intercession of the Advisory Board for a period exceeding
(A) two months
(B) less than two months
(C) three months
(D) twelve months
Ans: (C) three months
34. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
(A) public order
(B) security of state
(C) health
(D) morality
Ans: (B) security of state
35. Under Article 30(1), the right to establish and administer educational institution belongs to
(A) all citizens of India.
(B) all people of India.
(C) religious and linguistic minorities.
(D) minorities as well as majority.
Ans: (C) religious and linguistic minorities.
36. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except
(A) Quo warranto
(B) Habeas corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Prohibition
Ans: (B) Habeas corpus
37. The right to property was dropped from the list of Fundamental Rights by
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) 44th Amendment
38. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right to religion
(C) Right to constitutional remedies
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) Right to constitutional remedies
39. The right under Article 32 can be suspended by
(A) the Parliament
(B) the State Legislature
(C) the Supreme Court of India
(D) the President when proclamation of emergency is in operation.
Ans: (D) the President when proclamation of emergency is in operation.
40. In 1971, a new Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution which provides that a law giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy specified in Article 39(b) and (c) will not be void on the ground of contravention of Articles 14, 19 or 31. The insertion was made by which of the following Amendments?
(A) 21st Amendment
(B) 24th Amendment
(C) 25th Amendment
(D) 26th Amendment
Ans: (C) 25th Amendment
41. Which Article of the Constitution provides that the Parliament will determine the extent of fundamental rights for the members of the Armed Forces?
(A) Article 31D
(B) Article 32A
(C) Article 33
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) Article 33
42. According to Article 35, in respect to any of the matters under Articles 16(3), 32(3), 33 and 34, who has the power to make laws?
(A) The Parliament
(B) The State Legislature
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) The Parliament
TOPIC 7: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY (4 Questions)
43. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive Principles from
(A) Constitution of Switzerland
(B) Constitution of Ireland
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Constitution of USA
Ans: (B) Constitution of Ireland
44. “Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution” was opined by
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) A.V. Dicey
(C) Granville Austin
(D) K.L. Wheare
Ans: (C) Granville Austin
45. Match the following:
Articles: (a) 39A (b) 40 (c) 41 (d) 44
Provisions:
(i) Uniform Civil Code
(ii) Equal justice and free legal aid
(iii) Organisation of village panchayat
(iv) Right to work
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv ii iii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i
Ans: (C) ii, iii, iv, i
46. In Article 45, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 14 years
Ans: (A) 6 years
TOPIC 8: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES (2 Questions)
47. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?
(A) USA
(B) UK
(C) Erstwhile USSR
(D) Canada
Ans: (C) Erstwhile USSR
48. How many duties are conferred on the citizens in Article 51A?
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans: (C) 11
TOPIC 9: PARLIAMENT (10 Questions)
49. The Parliament of India consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
Ans: (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
50. Total strength of the Council of States consists of
(A) 260 members
(B) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
(C) 305 members
(D) 300 members representing States and Union Territories
Ans: (B) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
51. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the constituencies is vested with
(A) Election Commission
(B) Parliament
(C) State Legislatures
(D) President
Ans: (B) Parliament
52. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) 14 days
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) 14 days
53. Prorogation of a House means
(A) a House has been brought in session.
(B) the session of the House has been terminated.
(C) the House itself stands terminated.
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B) the session of the House has been terminated.
54. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament can be
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 20
Ans: (C) 14
55. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States?
(A) 520
(B) 530
(C) 540
(D) 550
Ans: (B) 530
56. When the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker?
(A) The President
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Council of Ministers
Ans: (A) The President
57. After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member vacant, when he absent from all meetings without permission of the House?
(A) 30 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 60 days
(D) There is no time period
Ans: (C) 60 days
58. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertaking
(D) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans: (B) Estimates Committee
TOPIC 10: UNION EXECUTIVE – PRESIDENT (7 Questions)
59. The President of India nominates
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) All of the above
Ans: (B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
60. “The power of the President to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not justiciable on its merits. Only the area and scope of President’s power under Article 72 can be examined by the court.” This was held by the Supreme Court in
(A) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
(B) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh
(C) Maru Ram v. Union of India
(D) All of the above
Ans: (A) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
61. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till the new President is elected?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Seniormost Governor
(D) Leader of the majority party
Ans: (A) Chief Justice of India
62. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Constituent power
(B) Legislative power
(C) Executive power
(D) Quasi-judicial power
Ans: (B) Legislative power
63. The President of India has power to
(A) summon each House of Parliament.
(B) dissolve the Houses or either House of Parliament.
(C) prorogue the Houses or either House of Parliament.
(D) dissolve the Lok Sabha only.
Ans: (D) dissolve the Lok Sabha only.
64. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred
(A) only in the Council of States
(B) only in the House of the People
(C) only in joint session of Parliament
(D) by either House of Parliament
Ans: (D) by either House of Parliament
65. “Article 74(1) is mandatory and therefore, the President cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers”, was observed by the Supreme Court in:
(A) Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab
TOPIC 11: PRIME MINISTER & COUNCIL OF MINISTERS (1 Question)
66. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister
(A) the Cabinet may choose another leader.
(B) fresh general election must take place.
(C) the ministry is dissolved.
(D) President’s decision.
Ans: (C) the ministry is dissolved.
TOPIC 12: STATE EXECUTIVE – GOVERNOR (2 Questions)
67. Power of the Governor to grant pardon, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
(A) Article 159
(B) Article 161
(C) Article 162
(D) Article 163
Ans: (B) Article 161
68. In the performance of his duties in exercise of his powers, the Governor
(A) is answerable to the Vidhan Sabha.
(B) is answerable in the court of law.
(C) is not answerable to the court of law.
(D) can be impeached by the Vidhan Sabha.
Ans: (C) is not answerable to the court of law.
TOPIC 13: STATE LEGISLATURE (2 Questions)
69. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) State Legislative Assembly
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) State Legislative Assembly
70. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by
(A) Direct elections
(B) Indirect elections
(C) the system of proportional representation.
(D) the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
Ans: (D) the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
TOPIC 14: SUPREME COURT AND JUDICIARY (8 Questions)
71. When the Supreme Court sits to determine any question involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or for tendering its advice, the minimum number of judges to constitute the Bench should be
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 13
Ans: (B) 5
72. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Governor of a State
(D) The Parliament of India
Ans: (A) The President of India
73. Every judge of the Supreme Court of India shall hold office until he attains the age of
(A) 58 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
Ans: (D) 65 years
74. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court held that primacy should be given to the opinion of other constitutional functions in the matter of appointment of High Court and Supreme Court judges?
(A) Keshavananda Bharti case
(B) Special Courts Bills case
(C) Transfer of Judges case
(D) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
Ans: (D) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
75. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba Rao in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Ans: (D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
76. Disputes between States comes to the Supreme Court under
(A) original jurisdiction
(B) advisory jurisdiction
(C) appellate jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) original jurisdiction
77. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264
Ans: (C) Article 262
78. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of India are filed and settled
(A) in the Supreme Court
(B) in the Parliament
(C) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(D) in the Election Commission
Ans: (A) in the Supreme Court
TOPIC 15: CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS (4 Questions)
79. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving question of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III
Ans: (B) Article 254
80. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to
I. Union List
II. State List
III. Concurrent List
(A) I
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
Ans: (C) I and III
81. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. The doctrine relates to
(A) implied powers
(B) ancillary power
(C) pith and substance
(D) colourable legislation
Ans: (D) colourable legislation
82. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264
Ans: (C) Article 262
TOPIC 16: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS (2 Questions)
83. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times?
(A) National Emergency
(B) President’s Rule in a State
(C) Financial Emergency
(D) All three, equal number of times
Ans: (B) President’s Rule in a State
84. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of
(A) six months
(B) nine months
(C) one year
(D) two years
Ans: (C) one year
TOPIC 17: AMENDMENTS (4 Questions)
85. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 inserted the provision for the right to education. The age of such children should be
(A) 0 to 12 years
(B) 6 to 14 years
(C) 7 to 12 years
(D) 12 to 18 years
Ans: (B) 6 to 14 years
86. The right to property was dropped from the list of Fundamental Rights by
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) 44th Amendment
87. In 1971, a new Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution by which Amendment?
(A) 21st Amendment
(B) 24th Amendment
(C) 25th Amendment
(D) 26th Amendment
Ans: (C) 25th Amendment
88. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, the President
(A) may return the Bill for reconsideration.
(B) shall give his assent.
(C) may give his assent.
(D) may withhold his assent.
Ans: (B) shall give his assent.
TOPIC 18: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES (11 Questions)
89. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) the Finance Commission
(B) the Election Commission
(C) Other Backward Classes
(D) defections
Ans: (D) defections
90. Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commissions are appointed by
(A) the President.
(B) the President and Governor of respective States.
(C) the Prime Minister and Chief Minister of respective States.
(D) Both (A) & (C)
Ans: (B) the President and Governor of respective States.
91. The members of UPSC hold the office
(A) during the pleasure of President.
(B) as long as they enjoy the confidence in Parliament.
(C) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years.
(D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years.
Ans: (D) for the term of the six years or till they attain the age of 65 years.
92. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Office of President and Vice President
(D) All the above
Ans: (D) All the above
93. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chairman of UPSC
(C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
(D) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme Court
Ans: (C) President on recommendation of Supreme Court
94. The Chief Election Commissioner is
(A) appointed by Home Minister
(B) appointed by Prime Minister
(C) elected by Parliament
(D) appointed by the President
Ans: (D) appointed by the President
95. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Chairman of the UPSC
Ans: (C) Attorney General of India
96. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General?
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 238
Ans: (B) Article 148
97. Who among the following has a right to speak or otherwise participate in the proceedings of either House or in any joint sitting of the Parliament without voting right?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Election Commissioner
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans: (C) Attorney General of India
98. Under Article 321 of the Constitution, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Parliament
(C) Chairman of the Commission
(D) President
Ans: (B) Parliament
99. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
(A) the President of India
(B) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) the Vice-President
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) the Vice-President
TOPIC 19: SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION (1 Question)
100. How many languages are present in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans: (D) 22
📊 TOPIC SUMMARY – CORRECTED (100 Questions)
| SL No. | Topic Name | Question Numbers | Count |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Constitutional History & Acts | 1-9 | 9 |
| 2 | Constituent Assembly | 10-11 | 2 |
| 3 | Preamble | 12-13 | 2 |
| 4 | Nature of Indian Constitution | 14-15 | 2 |
| 5 | Citizenship | 16 | 1 |
| 6 | Fundamental Rights | 17-42 | 26 |
| 7 | Directive Principles of State Policy | 43-46 | 4 |
| 8 | Fundamental Duties | 47-48 | 2 |
| 9 | Parliament | 49-58 | 10 |
| 10 | Union Executive – President | 59-65 | 7 |
| 11 | Prime Minister & Council of Ministers | 66 | 1 |
| 12 | State Executive – Governor | 67-68 | 2 |
| 13 | State Legislature | 69-70 | 2 |
| 14 | Supreme Court and Judiciary | 71-78 | 8 |
| 15 | Centre-State Relations | 79-82 | 4 |
| 16 | Emergency Provisions | 83-84 | 2 |
| 17 | Amendments | 85-88 | 4 |
| 18 | Constitutional Bodies | 89-99 | 11 |
| 19 | Schedules of Constitution | 100 | 1 |
| TOTAL | 100 |