WBCS MAIN 2015 P-5 Polity MCQ & One Liner Questions – Prosir – WBCS, WBPSC & West Bengal Competitive Exam Platform

WBCS MAIN 2015 P-5 Polity MCQ

WBCS MAIN 2015 P-5 Polity One Liner Questions

Topic 1: Supreme Court

1. What is the minimum number of judges required to sit on the Constitution Bench or on a Bench giving advisory opinion to the President?
Ans: Three

2. What power does the Supreme Court of India possess as a Court of record?
Ans: Power to punish for its contempt

3. What is the present strength of the Supreme Court of India?
Ans: 26 Judges including the Chief Justice of India

4. Under which Article does the Supreme Court retain jurisdiction over Administrative Tribunals?
Ans: Article 136

5. How is the Chief Justice of India appointed?
Ans: The senior most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice of India

6. Which of the following is NOT a criteria for eligibility to become a Supreme Court judge – Judge of High Court for 5 years, Advocate of High Court for 10 years, Above 40 years of age, Distinguished jurist?
Ans: Above 40 years of age

7. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by Parliament?
Ans: Golaknath Case 1967

Topic 2: High Courts

8. In which Part and Chapter of the Constitution are High Courts instituted as Constitutional Courts?
Ans: Part VI Chapter 5

9. How many High Courts are currently there in India?
Ans: 24

Topic 3: President

10. Which Article provides personal immunity to the President from legal action for official acts?
Ans: Article 361

11. Which Amendment added the provision that the President can send back the advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration?
Ans: 44th Amendment

12. Where is the manner of election of the President found?
Ans: Article 55

13. Which Article contains the power of the President to grant pardons?
Ans: Article 72

14. Which Article empowers the President to appoint the Prime Minister?
Ans: Article 75

15. After declaration of financial emergency, how long can it operate without Parliamentary approval?
Ans: Two months

Topic 4: Vice-President

16. Which statement is correct about Rajya Sabha members?
Ans: All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State Legislative Assemblies

17. Who can remove the Vice-President from office?
Ans: Parliament

18. Which Article states that the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
Ans: Article 64

Topic 5: Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

19. What is the minimum age required to become the Prime Minister of India?
Ans: 25 years

20. Which statement about the Prime Minister is incorrect?
Ans: The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers

21. What is the maximum permissible size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre?
Ans: Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha

Topic 6: Parliament

22. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Ans: The Vice-President of India

23. Which Amendment increased the elective strength of Lok Sabha from 525 to 545?
Ans: 31st Amendment Act

24. Which Bill must be passed by each House by special majority?
Ans: Constitution Amendment Bill

25. How many members are nominated by the President to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Ans: 14 (2 in Lok Sabha + 12 in Rajya Sabha)

26. What is the minimum age for holding office in Rajya Sabha?
Ans: 30 years

27. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution?
Ans: 552

28. How many Anglo-Indians can be nominated to Lok Sabha?
Ans: 2

29. Which statements about Money Bill are correct?
Ans: 1 & 2 only – A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Council of States; Speaker certifies a Bill as Money Bill

30. Which Article provides for Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
Ans: Article 108

31. Who presides over Lok Sabha in absence of Speaker and Deputy Speaker?
Ans: One of the members out of a panel of six nominated by the Speaker

32. What happens in case of disagreement on a Bill between the two Houses?
Ans: A joint sitting of both Houses is convened

Topic 7: Governor

33. How can the emoluments, allowances and privileges of a Governor be altered?
Ans: By a Constitutional amendment passed by simple majority in Parliament

Topic 8: Attorney General

34. Who is the Chief Law Officer of India?
Ans: Attorney General

Topic 9: Fundamental Rights

35. Which statements about Right to Vote are correct?
Ans: Both – Right to vote is not a Fundamental Right but Constitutional; Prisoners and undertrials do not have right to vote

36. Which right did Dr. Ambedkar describe as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
Ans: Right to Constitutional Remedies

37. Which Article provides that “no person shall be deprived of his property saved by authority of law”?
Ans: Article 300 A

38. Which Articles cannot be suspended during emergency under Article 359?
Ans: Article 20 and Article 21

39. Which Article provides for free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years?
Ans: Article 21A

40. Which Article guarantees equality before law to all citizens?
Ans: Article 14

Topic 10: Fundamental Duties

41. How is Respect for National Flag and National Anthem classified?
Ans: Fundamental duty of every citizen

42. Which Article enumerates Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens?
Ans: Article 51-A

Topic 11: Directive Principles of State Policy

43. What is the nature of Directive Principles?
Ans: Not justifiable, yet fundamental in governance of the country

44. Are Directive Principles a part of the Indian Constitution?
Ans: Yes, they are a part of Indian Constitution

45. Are Directive Principles a novel feature of the Constitution?
Ans: No, they are not a novel feature

46. What did the 86th Amendment provide regarding Directive Principles?
Ans: Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete six years

Topic 12: Writs

47. Which writ is issued to a lower court forbidding it to act outside its jurisdiction?
Ans: Prohibition

48. Which writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
Ans: Prohibition, Certiorari, Mandamus

49. Which writ is considered the bulwark of personal freedom?
Ans: Habeas Corpus

Topic 13: Constitutional Amendments

50. Which Amendment provided reservation in private unaided educational institutions for SC/ST/OBC?
Ans: 93rd Amendment Act

51. Which provision requires ratification by half of State Legislatures under Article 368?
Ans: Supreme Court and High Court matters

52. Which Amendment reduced voting age from 21 to 18 years?
Ans: 61st Amendment Act

53. Which Amendment made defection illegal?
Ans: 52nd Amendment Act

54. In which year was the Preamble amended?
Ans: 1976

Topic 14: Schedules of the Constitution

55. How many languages were originally in the 8th Schedule and how many now?
Ans: Originally 14, now 22 languages

56. Which Schedule distributes power between Union and States?
Ans: Seventh Schedule

57. Which Schedule deals with Anti-Defection Act?
Ans: Tenth Schedule

58. Where are Union Territories specified?
Ans: First Schedule

Topic 15: Union Public Service Commission

59. Who can remove UPSC members before expiry of term?
Ans: President on recommendation of Supreme Court

60. How is the composition of UPSC determined?
Ans: Has been laid down in the Constitution

Topic 16: Election Commission

61. Who was the first Election Commissioner of India?
Ans: Sukumar Sen

62. Who was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Ans: V.S. Ramadevi

Topic 17: Finance Commission

63. What is NOT a primary function of Finance Commission?
Ans: Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India

Topic 18: Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

64. Which funds can be audited by CAG?
Ans: Consolidated Funds, Contingency Funds of India, Public Accounts of States (1,2,3 only)

Topic 19: National Commissions

65. Which statement about National Commission for SC is incorrect?
Ans: The National Commission for SC is a 6 member body

66. Which statements about NHRC Chairman are correct?
Ans: Neither 1 nor 2 – Not only retired CJI can become Chairman; Chairman cannot be re-appointed

67. Which Article empowers President to appoint Commission for backward classes?
Ans: Article 340

Topic 20: Panchayati Raj

68. In which Articles are Panchayat provisions incorporated?
Ans: Article 243 to Article 243 O

69. In which Part are Panchayats enshrined?
Ans: Part IX

70. Which state does NOT have Panchayati Raj Institutions?
Ans: Nagaland

Topic 21: Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Backward Classes

71. In which Part is reservation of seats for SC/ST dealt with?
Ans: Part XVI

72. Which communities are defined in the Constitution?
Ans: Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Anglo Indians (1,2 and 3)

Topic 22: Centre-State Relations

73. How many subjects are in the Concurrent List?
Ans: 52

74. In which Article are residuary powers found?
Ans: Article 248

75. How many subjects are in the Union List at present?
Ans: 100

76. Which subject is included in the Union List?
Ans: Extradition

77. In which Part are Union-State relations contained?
Ans: Part XI

Topic 23: Consolidated Fund

78. Where is Consolidated Fund of India provided?
Ans: Article 266

Topic 24: Doctrine of Pleasure

79. In which Article was Doctrine of Pleasure introduced?
Ans: Article 310

80. What are the two safeguards for civil servants under Doctrine of Pleasure?
Ans: Both – Not dismissed by subordinate authority; Reasonable opportunity of being heard

Topic 25: Emergency

81. Which statement about Financial Emergency is NOT correct?
Ans: President can reduce salaries of civil servants and not judges

Topic 26: Nature of Indian Constitution

82. What does “India is a Union of States” mean?
Ans: Indian federation is not the result of an agreement between States

Topic 27: Official Language

83. Which Article provides for mother tongue instruction to linguistic minorities at primary stage?
Ans: Article 350-A

84. Which Article contains duty of Union to promote Hindi language?
Ans: Article 351

85. In which state is English the official language?
Ans: Nagaland

Topic 28: Political Parties

86. What is the criteria for a regional party to be recognised as a national party?
Ans: Must be recognised in at least 4 states

Topic 29: Articles and Subjects (Matching)

87. Which Article is correctly matched with its subject?
Ans: Election Commission – Article 324

Topic 30: Defection

88. Which statements about defection are true?
Ans: 1 only – Independent member disqualified if joins party after 6 months; Nominated member can join anytime

Topic 31: Constituent Assembly

89. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: Dr. Rajendra Prasad

90. Who was the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee?
Ans: J.B. Kripalani

91. When was the Drafting Committee formed?
Ans: 29th August, 1947

92. Under which plan was the Constituent Assembly set up?
Ans: Cabinet Mission Plan

Topic 32: Jammu and Kashmir

93. What is the special constitutional position of Jammu and Kashmir?
Ans: It has its own constitution

Topic 33: National Flag

94. Which colour is used in the wheel of the National Flag?
Ans: Navy Blue

Topic 34: Right to Information (RTI)

95. Within what time should information be provided under RTI in life and liberty cases?
Ans: 48 Hours

96. When did RTI Act come into force?
Ans: 12th October, 2005

Topic 35: Administrative Tribunals

97. Which Amendment provided for Administrative Tribunals?
Ans: 42nd Amendment

Topic 36: Miscellaneous

98. Which Article provides for mother tongue instruction to linguistic minorities?
Ans: Article 350-A

99. Which Article contains duty to promote Hindi?
Ans: Article 351

100. In which state is English the official language?
Ans: Nagaland

TOPIC-WISE SUMMARY

Topic No.	Topic Name	Question Numbers
1	Supreme Court	1-7
2	High Courts	8-9
3	President	10-15
4	Vice-President	16-18
5	Prime Minister and Council of Ministers	19-21
6	Parliament	22-32
7	Governor	33
8	Attorney General	34
9	Fundamental Rights	35-40
10	Fundamental Duties	41-42
11	Directive Principles of State Policy	43-46
12	Writs	47-49
13	Constitutional Amendments	50-54
14	Schedules of the Constitution	55-58
15	Union Public Service Commission	59-60
16	Election Commission	61-62
17	Finance Commission	63
18	Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)	64
19	National Commissions	65-67
20	Panchayati Raj	68-70
21	SC, ST and Backward Classes	71-72
22	Centre-State Relations	73-77
23	Consolidated Fund	78
24	Doctrine of Pleasure	79-80
25	Emergency	81
26	Nature of Indian Constitution	82
27	Official Language	83-85
28	Political Parties	86
29	Articles and Subjects (Matching)	87
30	Defection	88
31	Constituent Assembly	89-92
32	Jammu and Kashmir	93
33	National Flag	94
34	Right to Information (RTI)	95-96
35	Administrative Tribunals	97
36	Miscellaneous	98-100

WBCS MAIN 2015 P-5 Polity MCQ

Topic 1: Supreme Court

1. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitution Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be

A. One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court
B. Seven
C. Three
D. One third of the total strength of the Court

Correct Answer: C. Three

2. The Supreme Court of India

A. Is a Court of record and has a power to punish for its contempt
B. Is the only highest Court of Appeal
C. Is like House of Lords on its Judicial side
D. Is in all respects like Supreme Court of USA

Correct Answer: A. Is a Court of record and has a power to punish for its contempt

3. The Supreme Court at present consists of

A. 26 Judges
B. 26 Judges including the Chief Justice of India
C. Chief Justice of India and 20 other Judges
D. Chief Justice of India and 16 other Judges

Correct Answer: B. 26 Judges including the Chief Justice of India

4. The Supreme Court retains its jurisdiction over the Administrative Tribunals under :

A. Art 356
B. Art 132
C. Art 134
D. Art 136

Correct Answer: D. Art 136

5. Who is appointed as the Chief Justice of India?

A. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India upon the advice of the Union Cabinet
B. The senior most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice of India
C. The panel of judges of Supreme Court elect a Chief Justice from among themselves
D. The Chief Justice of India is elected by the Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: B. The senior most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice of India

6. To be eligible to be a judge of the Supreme Court which among the following is not a criteria for eligibility ?

A. Judge of one High Court or more continuously for at least 5 years
B. An advocate of High Court for at least 10 years
C. Above 40 years of age
D. A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President

Correct Answer: C. Above 40 years of age

7. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold in a majority judgement that the Fundamental Rights could not by their very nature be subject to amendment by Parliament?

A. Minerva Mills Case 1980
B. Golaknath Case 1967
C. Keshavananda Bharati Case 1973
D. Champakam Dorairajan Case 1951

Correct Answer: B. Golaknath Case 1967

Topic 2: High Courts

8. High Courts are instituted as Constitutional Courts by

A. Part IX Chapter 2
B. Part VII Chapter 6
C. Part V Chapter 3
D. Part VI Chapter 5

Correct Answer: D. Part VI Chapter 5

9. Currently how many High Courts are there in India?

A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 29

Correct Answer: B. 24

Topic 3: President

10. Which article of the Constitution of India provides personal immunity to the head of the State for his official act from legal action including proceedings for contempt of Court?

A. Article 361
B. Article 362
C. Article 368
D. Article 369

Correct Answer: A. Article 361

11. Which Amendment to the Indian Constitution added that the President can send the advice of the Council of Ministers back for reconsideration once and if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the president must accept it ?

A. 44th Amendment
B. 43rd Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. 41st Amendment

Correct Answer: A. 44th Amendment

12. The manner of the election of the President in India is found in :

A. Art 64
B. Art 55
C. Art 56
D. Art 57

Correct Answer: B. Art 55

13. Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains the power of the president to grant pardons?

A. Article 72
B. Article 73
C. Article 74
D. Article 75

Correct Answer: A. Article 72

14. Which one of the following Articles empowers the president to appoint the Prime Minister of India?

A. Article 74
B. Article 75
C. Article 76
D. Article 77

Correct Answer: B. Article 75

15. After the declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation of the emergency without approval by the Parliament?

A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Four months

Correct Answer: B. Two months

Topic 4: Vice-President

16. Which of the following is correct?

A. Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President of India
B. All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State Legislative Assemblies
C. The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Vice-President
D. While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting

Correct Answer: B. All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State Legislative Assemblies

17. The Vice- President of India may be removed from his/her office by the :

A. Legislative Assemblies of State
B. Supreme Court
C. Prime Minister
D. Parliament

Correct Answer: D. Parliament

18. Which of the following Articles states that the Vice- President is an ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States?

A. Art 60
B. Art 61
C. Art 62
D. Art 64

Correct Answer: D. Art 64

Topic 5: Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

19. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister in India is

A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 40 years

Correct Answer: A. 25 years

20. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

A. The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers
B. Resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers
C. The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Ministers
D. The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: D. The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers

21. What is the maximum permissible size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre?

A. Maximum 50
B. No upper limit
C. Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha
D. Cannot exceed 10% of the total members of Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: C. Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha

Topic 6: Parliament

22. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is

A. The Vice-President of India
B. The President
C. Parliament
D. (B) or (c) depending on the type of extension

Correct Answer: A. The Vice-President of India

23. Choose the amendment to the Constitution of India that increased the elective strength of the Lok Sabha from 525 to 545

A. 31st Amendment Act
B. 30th Amendment Act
C. 25th Amendment Act
D. 21st Amendment Act

Correct Answer: A. 31st Amendment Act

24. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority?

A. Ordinary Bill
B. Money Bill
C. Finance Bill
D. Constitution Amendment Bill

Correct Answer: D. Constitution Amendment Bill

25. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is

A. 16
B. 18
C. 14
D. 12

Correct Answer: C. 14 (2 in Lok Sabha + 12 in Rajya Sabha)

26. The minimum age for holding office in the Rajya Sabha is

A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years

Correct Answer: D. 30 years

27. What is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution of India ?

A. 552
B. 340
C. 555
D. 550

Correct Answer: A. 552

28. The maximum number of Anglo Indian who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are

A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4

Correct Answer: B. 2

29. Consider the following statements regarding Money Bill in the Indian Parliament:

A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States
The Speaker of Lok Sabha certifies a Bill as Money Bill
The Council of States can amend a Money Bill

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B. 1 & 2 only

30. Choose the Article of the Indian Constitution that provides for the Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

A. Article 101
B. Article 108
C. Article 133
D. Article 102

Correct Answer: B. Article 108

31. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who presides over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?

A. Oldest member of the House
B. Prime Minister
C. Leader of the opposition
D. One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the speaker

Correct Answer: D. One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the speaker

32. In the case of disagreement on a Bill between the two Houses of Parliament

A. The Prime Minister intervenes
B. The President intervenes
C. A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the impasse
D. A joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament is convened

Correct Answer: D. A joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament is convened

Topic 7: Governor

33. The emoluments, allowances, privileges of a Governor can be altered by :

A. A Constitutional amendment passed by a simple majority in Parliament
B. A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament
C. A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament and ratified by one half of the State Legislatures
D. By an ordinary legislative process that does not require constitutional Amendment

Correct Answer: A. A Constitutional amendment passed by a simple majority in Parliament

Topic 8: Attorney General

34. Who is the Chief Law Officer of India?

A. Advocate General
B. Attorney General
C. Solicitor General
D. Law Minister

Correct Answer: B. Attorney General

Topic 9: Fundamental Rights

35. Choose the correct statement/statements :

Right to vote is not a Fundamental Right but a Constitutional one
Prisoners and undertrials in India do not have the right to vote

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None

Correct Answer: C. Both

36. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Religion
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Correct Answer: D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

37. Which new provision was added to the Indian Constitution which provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property saved by authority of law”?

A. Art 300 A
B. Art 300 B
C. Art 301 A
D. Art 301 B

Correct Answer: A. Art 300 A

38. Which among the following articles relating to Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the emergency under Art 359 of the Indian Constitution?

A. Art 14 and Art 15
B. Art 16 and Art 17
C. Art 20 and Art 21
D. Art 24 and Art 25

Correct Answer: C. Art 20 and Art 21

39. Choose the Article in the Constitution of India that envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years.

A. Art 19
B. Art 31
C. Art 44
D. Art 21A

Correct Answer: D. Art 21A

40. The Constitution of India guarantees that all citizens will be equal before law by which Article?

A. Art 11
B. Art 12
C. Art 13
D. Art 14

Correct Answer: D. Art 14

Topic 10: Fundamental Duties

41. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is

A. Fundamental right of every citizen
B. Fundamental duty of every citizen
C. Directive principles of State Policy
D. Ordinary duty of every citizen

Correct Answer: B. Fundamental duty of every citizen

42. Which Article of the Indian Constitution enumerates Fundamental Duties of an Indian Citizen?

A. Art 50-A
B. Art 50-B
C. Art 51-A
D. Art 51-B

Correct Answer: C. Art 51-A

Topic 11: Directive Principles of State Policy

43. Directive Principles are

A. Justifiable as fundamental rights
B. Justifiable but not as fundamental rights
C. Decorative portions of Indian Constitution
D. Not justifiable, yet fundamental in governance of the country

Correct Answer: D. Not justifiable, yet fundamental in governance of the country

44. Directive Principles of the State Policy are

A. Not part of Indian Constitution
B. Policy declarations made by Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Policy principles enunciated by the Planning Commission
D. A part of Indian Constitution

Correct Answer: D. A part of Indian Constitution

45. Directive Principles of State Policy are

A. Unique feature of the Constitution
B. Actual feature of the Constitution
C. Not a novel feature of the Constitution
D. Useless feature of the Constitution

Correct Answer: C. Not a novel feature of the Constitution

46. The Eighty- sixth Amendment of the Constitution of India altered a Directive Principle of the Constitution to provide for :

A. Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
B. The state to provide free legal aid
C. Encouraging village panchayats
D. Prohibiting intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health

Correct Answer: A. Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years

Topic 12: Writs

47. Name the writ issued by a superior court to a lower court or a tribunal forbidding it to perform and act outside its jurisdiction

A. Certiorari
B. Prohibition
C. Mandamus
D. Quo Warranto

Correct Answer: B. Prohibition

48. Choose the following writs that can be issued against administrative authorities :

A. Prohibition, Certiorari, Mandamus
B. Prohibition and Mandamus
C. Prohibition and Certiorari
D. Certiorari and Mandamus

Correct Answer: A. Prohibition, Certiorari, Mandamus

49. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?

A. Certiorari
B. Habeas Corpus
C. Mandamus
D. Quo Warranto

Correct Answer: B. Habeas Corpus

Topic 13: Constitutional Amendments

50. Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admissions in private un- aided educational institutions for students belonging to Scheduled Caste/Tribes and other Backward Classes?

A. 92nd Amendment Act
B. 93rd Amendment Act
C. 94th Amendment Act
D. 95th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: B. 93rd Amendment Act

51. Article 368 very clearly lays down situations in which State Legislatures have to ratify a piece of Legislation before the Bill can receive the assent of the President. Choose the provision/provisions from the following that requires ratification by ½ of State Legislature

A. Women’s reservation
B. Amendment of provisions regarding Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Supreme court and High Court

Correct Answer: D. Supreme court and High Court

52. The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the

A. 61st Amendment Act
B. 63rd Amendment Act
C. 64th Amendment Act
D. 69th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: A. 61st Amendment Act

53. Defection to another party after election was made illegal by the :

A. 52nd Amendment Act
B. 53rd Amendment Act
C. 54th amendment Act
D. 55th Amendment Act

Correct Answer: A. 52nd Amendment Act

54. The preamble to the Indian Constitution was amended in which year?

A. 1974
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1977

Correct Answer: C. 1976

Topic 14: Schedules of the Constitution

55. Point out the correct statement :

Originally the Constitution of India had 14 languages in the 8th schedule
Currently there are 22 languages in the Constitution of India

A. 1 correct
B. 2 not correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are correct
D. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Both 1 and 2 are correct

56. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States ?

A. First Schedule
B. Second Schedule
C. Sixth Schedule
D. Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer: D. Seventh Schedule

57. Which schedule deals with the Anti Defection Act?

A. Fifth
B. Eighth
C. Seventh
D. Tenth

Correct Answer: D. Tenth

58. The Union Territories are specified in the _

A. First Schedule
B. Second Schedule
C. Third Schedule
D. Fourth Schedule

Correct Answer: A. First Schedule

Topic 15: Union Public Service Commission

59. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the

A. Prime Minister
B. Chairman of UPSC
C. President on recommendation of Supreme Court
D. Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme court

Correct Answer: C. President on recommendation of Supreme Court

60. The Composition of UPSC

A. Has been laid down in the Constitution
B. Is determined by Parliament
C. Is determined by President
D. Is determined by Home Ministry

Correct Answer: A. Has been laid down in the Constitution

Topic 16: Election Commission

61. The first Election Commissioner of India was :

A. Sukumar Sen
B. Dr. Nagendra Singh
C. S.P. Sen Verma
D. K.V.K. Sundaram

Correct Answer: A. Sukumar Sen

62. Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India?

A. V.S. Ramadevi
B. G.D. Das
C. S.K. Bedi
D. R.M. Nikam

Correct Answer: A. V.S. Ramadevi

Topic 17: Finance Commission

63. Point out what is not the primary function of the Finance Commission in India

A. Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India
B. Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States
C. Determine factors governing grants-in-Aid to the States
D. Recommend to the President the measures needed to augment the consolidated Fund of a State

Correct Answer: A. Prepare estimates of consolidated fund of India

Topic 18: Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

64. Which of the following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by the CAG?

Consolidated Funds of Union Government, State, U.Ts having legislative Assemblies
Contingency Funds of India
Public Accounts of States
Receipts and expenditure of PPP (Public Private Partnership)

A. 1,2,3 only
B. 1,2 only
C. 1,3 only
D. All

Correct Answer: A. 1,2,3 only

Topic 19: National Commissions

65. Choose the incorrect statement among the following:

A. The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body
B. National Commission for S.C. is a constitutional body established with a view to provide safe-guards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes.
C. The first commission came into being on Aug, 1978
D. The Commission enquires into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes

Correct Answer: A. The National Commission for S.C. is a 6 member body

66. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) consider the following statements:

Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become a Chairman of NHRC
The Chairman can be re-appointed

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

67. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of the backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures?

A. Article 340
B. Article 342
C. Article 344
D. Article 339

Correct Answer: A. Article 340

Topic 20: Panchayati Raj

68. Provisions regarding the Panchayats are incorporated in which articles?

A. Art 243 to Art 243 L
B. Art 243 to Art 243 M
C. Art 243 to Art 244
D. Art 243 to Art 243 O

Correct Answer: D. Art 243 to Art 243 O

69. The Panchayats are enshrined in which Part of the Constitution of India?

A. Part IX
B. Part IX A
C. Part X
D. Part XI A

Correct Answer: A. Part IX

70. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?

A. Assam
B. Nagaland
C. Kerala
D. Tripura

Correct Answer: B. Nagaland

Topic 21: Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Backward Classes

71. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is dealt within :

A. Part XII of Constitution of India
B. Part XIII of Constitution of India
C. Part XIV of Constitution of India
D. Part XVI of Constitution of India

Correct Answer: D. Part XVI of Constitution of India

72. The Constitution of India has defined which of the following? Select the correct answer

Scheduled Caste
Scheduled Tribe
Anglo Indians

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Topic 22: Centre-State Relations

73. How many subjects are found in the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution?

A. 52
B. 62
C. 42
D. 72

Correct Answer: A. 52

74. The residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament in India. The residuary provisions are found in which Article?

A. Art 245
B. Art 248
C. Art 250
D. Art 251

Correct Answer: B. Art 248

75. Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on items in the Union list. How many subjects are in the Union list at present?

A. 100
B. 80
C. 87
D. 99

Correct Answer: A. 100

76. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union list?

A. Agriculture
B. Extradition
C. Public health, Sanitation, Hospitals
D. Libraries, Museums

Correct Answer: B. Extradition

77. The provisions regarding the Union and the State relations are contained in which part of the Constitution of India?

A. IX
B. X
C. XII
D. XI

Correct Answer: D. XI

Topic 23: Consolidated Fund

78. Consolidated Fund of India is provided in

A. Art 234
B. Art 265
C. Art 239
D. Art 266

Correct Answer: D. Art 266

Topic 24: Doctrine of Pleasure

79. Doctrine of pleasure was introduced in :

A. Article 310
B. Article 312
C. Article 317
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A. Article 310

80. Though all government servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor (as the case may be), two procedural safe-guards are provided for the security of tenure of ‘civil servants’ as distinguished from military personnel by the Constitution of India –

A civil servant shall not be dismissed or removed by any authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed
No dismissal, removal or reduction in rank shall be ordered against a civil servant unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges brought against him

A. 1 correct
B. 2 correct
C. Both (1) and (2) correct
D. (1) correct, (2) incorrect

Correct Answer: C. Both (1) and (2) correct

Topic 25: Emergency

81. Which is not correct statement regarding financial emergency ?

A. President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
B. The States may be asked to reserve the Money Bills for the consideration of the President
C. President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
D. President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges

Correct Answer: D. President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges

Topic 26: Nature of Indian Constitution

82. India is Union of States. This means

A. That the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement between States
B. That the original federation of States gave way to Sovereign Republic
C. That the Constituent Assembly has created the unitary State of India
D. That the making of the Indian Union was preceded by the prolonged struggle for freedom from foreign rule.

Correct Answer: A. That the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement between States

Topic 27: Official Language

83. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it should by the endeavour of every State and every local authority to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to linguistic minority groups :

A. Art 349
B. Art 350
C. Art 350-A
D. Art 351

Correct Answer: C. Art 350-A

84. The Constitution of India provides that “it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language”. It is found in

A. Art 49
B. Art 149
C. Art 351
D. Art 355

Correct Answer: C. Art 351

85. English is the official language of which one of the following States?

A. Nagaland
B. Assam
C. Manipur
D. Tripura

Correct Answer: A. Nagaland

Topic 28: Political Parties

86. What is the criteria for a regional party to be recognised as a national party?

A. Must be recognised in at least 4 states
B. Must be recognised in at least 3 states
C. To get 1/10th seats in the Lok Sabha
D. Must get 1/10th seats in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Correct Answer: A. Must be recognised in at least 4 states

Topic 29: Articles and Subjects (Matching)

87. Which of the following articles correctly matched?

A. Election Commission – Art 324
B. Finance Commission – Art 200
C. Attorney General – Art 176
D. National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes – Art 320

Correct Answer: A. Election Commission – Art 324

Topic 30: Defection

88. With reference to defections consider the following statements :

An independent member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat.
A nominated member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party any time

Which statement is/are true ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: A. 1 only

Topic 31: Constituent Assembly

89. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?

A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C. C. Rajagopalachari
D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer: A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

90. Name the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly :

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. J.B. Kripalani
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Gopinath Bardoloi

Correct Answer: B. J.B. Kripalani

91. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was formed by the Constituent Assembly on:

A. 29th August, 1947
B. 30th August, 1948
C. 29th August, 1946
D. 30th August, 1949

Correct Answer: A. 29th August, 1947

92. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set- up under the recommendation of :

A. Cabinet Mission Plan
B. Wavell Plan
C. Mountbatten Plan
D. Crips Mission

Correct Answer: A. Cabinet Mission Plan

Topic 32: Jammu and Kashmir

93. What is the special constitutional position of Jammu and Kashmir?

A. Indian laws are not applicable
B. It is not part of the Indian Union
C. It has its own constitution
D. It is a protected territory

Correct Answer: C. It has its own constitution

Topic 33: National Flag

94. In the National Flag which colour is used in the wheel?

A. Black
B. White
C. Navy Blue
D. Blue

Correct Answer: C. Navy Blue

Topic 34: Right to Information (RTI)

95. Within what time should information be provided under RTI in case of life and personal liberty of a person?

A. 24 Hrs.
B. One Week
C. 48 Hrs.
D. 40 Days

Correct Answer: C. 48 Hrs.

96. Right to Information Act came into force in :

A. 12th Oct, 2005
B. 12th Oct 2006
C. 12th Oct 2007
D. 12th Oct 2008

Correct Answer: A. 12th Oct, 2005

Topic 35: Administrative Tribunals

97. To reduce the mounting arrears in High Courts and to secure the speedy disposal of service matters, revenue matters and certain other matters of special importance in the context of the socio- economic development and progress which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for administrative and other tribunals for dealing with the above matter?

A. 41st Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 43rd Amendment
D. 44th Amendment

Correct Answer: B. 42nd Amendment