WBCS MAIN 2016 P-5 Polity MCQ & One Liner Questions

WBCS MAIN 2016 P-5 Polity MCQ

WBCS MAIN 2016 P-5 Polity One Liner Questions

Topic 1: President

1. Under the Constitution, is it obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers?
Ans: Yes, it is obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Can the President declare emergency under Article 356 without a report from the Governor?
Ans: Yes, even without a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that the state government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

3. Within what period must a proclamation of emergency be placed before Parliament for approval?
Ans: Within one month.

4. For how long can National Emergency be continued with the approval of Parliament?
Ans: For an indefinite period.

5. Which change is NOT effected during national emergency?
Ans: The President cannot act in his discretion disregarding the advice of the Council of Ministers.

6. When does a member of Parliament or State Legislature have to relinquish his seat if elected as President?
Ans: As soon as he is elected.

7. In the Presidential election, who enjoys equal number of votes?
Ans: Members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of Parliament.

8. During recess of Parliament, with whose consent can the President promulgate ordinances?
Ans: With the consent of the Council of Ministers.

9. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the Constitution?
Ans: K. M. Nambiar.

10. Which step cannot be taken by the President during Financial Emergency?
Ans: Suspension of Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.

11. What is the maximum duration for which the Vice-President can officiate as President?
Ans: 6 months.

Topic 2: Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

12. How can the Council of Ministers be removed from office?
Ans: By the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence.

13. What is the financial function of the Council of Ministers?
Ans: To prepare and introduce the budget in Parliament.

14. With what does the formation of the Council of Ministers start?
Ans: With the appointment of the Prime Minister.

15. Which power of the Prime Minister has been wrongly listed?
Ans: He cannot dismiss the Council of Ministers if members are not cooperating with him.

16. Which Article states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?
Ans: Article 75(3).

17. During whose pleasure do the members of the Council of Ministers hold office?
Ans: During the pleasure of the President.

Topic 3: Parliament

18. Which statement about Parliament is NOT correct?
Ans: Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.

19. What is the time allowed to members to ask questions to ministers called?
Ans: The Question Hour.

20. What is Zero Hour?
Ans: When matters of utmost importance are raised.

21. What is the term for stopping further debate on a motion in parliamentary procedure?
Ans: Closure.

Topic 4: Supreme Court and Judiciary

22. In which case did the Supreme Court spell out restrictions on the Union Government’s power under Article 356?
Ans: S.R. Bommai Case.

23. Can a retired judge of High Court sit and act as judge of Supreme Court?
Ans: Yes, a retired judge of Supreme Court and High Courts can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.

24. What does Judicial Review power of the Supreme Court mean?
Ans: The power to examine the constitutional validity of laws.

Topic 5: Governor

25. How many members of the Legislative Council can the Governor nominate?
Ans: One third members of Legislative Council.

Topic 6: Advocate General

26. Which Article deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate General of State?
Ans: Article 165.

Topic 7: Fundamental Rights

27. Which Fundamental Right has been the subject of maximum litigation and controversy?
Ans: Right to Property.

28. Which feature has been wrongly listed as a feature of Right to Equality?
Ans: It prohibits special treatments of any section of society.

29. Where are the Six Freedoms of Indian citizens enshrined?
Ans: Article 19.

30. On which Fundamental Right does ‘Contempt of Court’ place restriction?
Ans: Right to Freedom.

31. When can Fundamental Rights be suspended?
Ans: By the President during national emergency.

Topic 8: Directive Principles of State Policy

32. Which Article directs the state to promote welfare of people by securing social order with justice?
Ans: Article 38.

33. Which Article directs the State to ensure that wealth and means of production do not get concentrated?
Ans: Article 39.

34. Which Article promotes educational and economic interests of weaker sections, especially SCs and STs?
Ans: Article 46.

35. Which was the first programme to implement Article 47 (prohibition of intoxicants)?
Ans: Community Development Programme.

36. Why were Directive Principles made explicitly non-justiciable?
Ans: Because implementation needs resources which states may not have.

37. Which has been wrongly listed as a Directive Principle?
Ans: Provision of employment facilities to all able-bodied persons.

38. Which Directive Principle is non-Gandhian?
Ans: Provision of free and compulsory education for children up to age fourteen.

39. Who compared Directive Principles to a cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank?
Ans: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.

40. Which difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles has been wrongly listed?
Ans: The Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional basis while the Directive Principles are based on conventions.

Topic 9: Writs

41. Which writ is issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a particular case?
Ans: Prohibition.

42. Which writ is issued asking a lower court to send the record of a case to a higher court?
Ans: Certiorari.

43. Against whom is the writ of prohibition issued?
Ans: Judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.

Topic 10: Constitutional Amendments

44. In which cases was the basic structure doctrine further elaborated after Kesavananda Bharati?
Ans: Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain case and Minerva Mills case.

45. Which amendment allowed filling backlog vacancies for SCs (15%) and STs (7%)?
Ans: 81st Amendment.

46. Which amendment empowered reservation in promotions for SCs and STs?
Ans: 77th Amendment.

47. What did the First Amendment (1951) seek to achieve?
Ans: Securing constitutional validity of thirteen Zamindari Abolition Laws in the 9th schedule.

48. Which amendment created the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
Ans: 89th Amendment.

49. Which amendment abolished Privy Purses and privileges of Indian princes?
Ans: 26th Amendment.

50. Which amendments extended reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes?
Ans: Eighth, 23rd and 45th Amendments (All of the above).

51. Which amendment did away with privileges of I.C.S. Officers?
Ans: 28th Amendment.

52. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the Commission for SCs and STs?
Ans: 65th Amendment.

53. Which amendments are related to right to private property?
Ans: First, Fourth and Seventeenth Amendments (All of the above).

54. Which amendment overcame restrictions on Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights after Golak Nath case?
Ans: 24th Amendment.

55. When was the Constitution amended for the first time?
Ans: 1951.

56. What was the purpose of the 59th Constitutional Amendment?
Ans: To impose emergency in Punjab.

57. Which article was omitted by the 80th Amendment Bill?
Ans: Article 272.

58. Which article is excluded from the amendment procedure under Article 368?
Ans: Article 169.

Topic 11: Schedules of the Constitution

59. Which schedule is not correctly matched?
Ans: Schedule Ten – Panchayats (It deals with Anti-Defection).

Topic 12: Panchayati Raj

60. What does Article 243F deal with?
Ans: Disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.

61. In which year was the first Panchayat election held?
Ans: 1978.

62. Who summons the meeting of the Gram Panchayat Sabha?
Ans: Gram Pradhan.

63. When is the annual meeting of Gram Sabha held?
Ans: October.

Topic 13: Constitutional Bodies

64. What does Article 280 establish?
Ans: Finance Commission.

65. Up to what age can UPSC members function?
Ans: 62 years.

66. What is the composition of Joint Committee on Office of Profit?
Ans: 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.

Topic 14: Centre-State Relations

67. Where are administrative relations between Centre and State outlined?
Ans: Articles 256-263.

Topic 15: Preamble

68. Which statement about the Preamble is incorrect?
Ans: Preamble is enforceable in court of law.

Topic 16: Constitutional History

69. Which state was created by the Assam Reorganization Act, 1969?
Ans: Meghalaya only.

70. Which is the latest among the Reorganization Acts?
Ans: Bihar Reorganization Act.

71. What was the purpose of Rajaji Formula (1944)?
Ans: To resolve the political deadlock in the country.

72. Through which offer was the demand for Constituent Assembly first conceded by British Government?
Ans: August Offer.

73. Through which Act did Indian Legislature become bicameral?
Ans: Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919).

74. Which was the governing law of India before 26 November 1949?
Ans: Government of India Act, 1935.

75. Which committee of Constituent Assembly was Dr. Rajendra Prasad NOT a member of?
Ans: Order of Business Committee.

76. Which report best supported inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution?
Ans: Nehru Committee Report, 1928.

77. When was the design of National Flag adopted by Constituent Assembly?
Ans: July 1947.

78. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: 389.

Topic 17: Article 13 and Doctrines

79. Which doctrine is coherent with Article 13 – “to the extent of such inconsistency be void”?
Ans: Doctrine of Severability.

80. Under which concept can Article 13(1) be placed?
Ans: Judicial Review.

Topic 18: Right to Constitutional Remedies

81. What does Right to Constitutional Remedies mean?
Ans: Right to move courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Topic 19: Cultural and Educational Rights

82. Why were Cultural and Educational Rights granted?
Ans: To help minorities conserve their culture.

83. What does Right to Cultural and Educational Rights imply?
Ans: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

84. Under which Article is protection of minorities envisaged?
Ans: Article 29.

Topic 20: Linguistic Reorganization

85. Which was the first state established on linguistic basis?
Ans: Andhra Pradesh.

Topic 21: Land Reforms

86. When was Operation Barga introduced in West Bengal?
Ans: 1978.

87. When was the Untouchable Law enacted?
Ans: 1951.

88. What was included in land reforms in India?
Ans: Abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reforms, and reorganisation of agriculture (All of the above).

Topic 22: Citizenship

89. Which Article deals with citizenship rights of Indian origin persons residing outside India?
Ans: Article 8.

Topic 23: Union Territories

90. When was the Metropolitan Council of Delhi replaced by a 70-member legislative assembly?
Ans: 1993.

Topic 24: Parts of Constitution

91. Which Part of the Constitution has only one article?
Ans: Part XX.

Topic 25: State Legislature

92. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
Ans: 60.

Topic 26: Taxation

93. Which duty is imposed by Central Government but collected by State Government?
Ans: Stamp Duties.

Topic 27: Zonal Councils

94. Which Act led to creation of Zonal Councils?
Ans: States Reorganization Act, 1956.

Topic 28: Lok Sabha

95. According to which Census was the maximum strength of Lok Sabha (552) fixed?
Ans: 1971 Census.

Topic 29: Committees

96. Which committee recommended setting up an “Equal Opportunity Commission”?
Ans: Sachar Committee.

Topic 30: Council of States (Rajya Sabha)

97. Why are all States not equally represented in Rajya Sabha?
Ans: Because the dominant Congress party in Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.

Topic 31: Miscellaneous

98. What is January 26, 1957 known for?
Ans: Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force.

99. In which states is the tribal population largest?
Ans: Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

100. Which pair is not correctly matched?
Ans: Part XIX – Amendment of the constitution (Actually Part XX).

WBCS MAIN 2016 P-5 Polity MCQ

Topic 1: President

1. Under the Constitution it is

A. obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers but is not obliged to follow it.
B. it is obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.
C. it is not obligatory for the President to seek or accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.
D. it is obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers if his own party is in power.

Correct Answer: B. it is obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. The President can declare emergency on ground of the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the states,

A. only on the receipt of report from the Governor of the state to this effect.
B. even without a receipt of a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that situation has arisen in which the govt. of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
C. if the Council of Ministers of the States recommends to the President.
D. if the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly recommends to the President.

Correct Answer: B. even without a receipt of a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that situation has arisen in which the govt. of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

3. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval

A. within one month.
B. within two months.
C. within six months.
D. within one year.

Correct Answer: A. within one month.

4. With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can be continued for

A. a maximum period of three years.
B. a maximum period of one year.
C. an indefinite period.
D. a maximum period of six months.

Correct Answer: C. an indefinite period.

5. Which one of the following changes is not effected during the national emergency?

A. The Fundamental Rights of the citizens can be suspended.
B. The distribution of revenue between the Union and the States can be modified.
C. The President can issue directions to the state with regard to exercise of their powers.
D. The President can act in his discretion the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Correct Answer: D. The President can act in his discretion the advice of the Council of Ministers.

6. A member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as the President, but,

A. he has to resign his seat before contesting election.
B. he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected.
C. he has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election.
D. a member of Parliament can contest but a member of State Legislature can not contest.

Correct Answer: B. he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected.

7. In the election of the President,

A. the members of the State Legislative Assemblies enjoy more votes.
B. the members of Parliament enjoy more votes.
C. the members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C. the members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.

8. During the recess of the Parliament the President can promulgate ordinances

A. with the prior approval of the Parliament.
B. with the prior approval of the Supreme Court of India.
C. with the consent of the Council of Ministers.
D. on his own.

Correct Answer: C. with the consent of the Council of Ministers.

9. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the Constitution?

A. K. M. Nambiar
B. K. M. Munshi
C. Dr. B. N. Rau
D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Correct Answer: A. K. M. Nambiar

10. Which one of the following steps can not be taken by the President during the Financial Emergency?

A. He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons of financial propriety as he deems desirable.
B. He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens.
C. He can order reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil servants.
D. He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.

Correct Answer: B. He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens.

11. The maximum duration for which the Vice-President may officiate as President is

A. 1 year
B. 3 months
C. 1 month
D. 6 months

Correct Answer: D. 6 months

Topic 2: Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

12. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office,

A. by the President at his discretion.
B. by the Rajya Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.
C. by the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.
D. by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha jointly by passing a vote of no confidence against it.

Correct Answer: C. by the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.

13. The financial functions of the Council of Ministers include the right of,

A. to certify whether a bill is a money bill or not.
B. to prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.
C. to control expenditure out of the Contingency Fund of India.
D. to appoint Finance Commission from time to time.

Correct Answer: B. to prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.

14. The formation of the Council of Ministers starts with

A. the ordering of the general election of Parliament.
B. the appointment of the Prime Minister.
C. the appointment of the President.
D. the formal notification of the President.

Correct Answer: B. the appointment of the Prime Minister.

15. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed?

A. The members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
B. He allocates portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers.
C. He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
D. He can dismiss the Council of Ministers if he finds that the members are not cooperating with him.

Correct Answer: D. He can dismiss the Council of Ministers if he finds that the members are not cooperating with him.

16. “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”, which Article states this?

A. 75 (2)
B. 75 (1)
C. 75 (4)
D. 75 (3)

Correct Answer: D. 75 (3)

17. Constitutionally the members of the Council of Ministers hold office

A. during the pleasure of the President.
B. during the pleasure of the Speaker.
C. during the pleasure of the Parliament.
D. during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

Correct Answer: A. during the pleasure of the President.

Topic 3: Parliament

18. Which among the following statements is not correct?

A. All money bills can originate in Lok Sabha only.
B. Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha only.
C. Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.
D. No confidence motion against Council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha.

Correct Answer: C. Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.

19. The time allowed to the members of a house to ask question to the minister concerned, is called

A. The Question Hour
B. Zero Hour
C. Adjournment Motion
D. Call Attention Motion

Correct Answer: A. The Question Hour

20. What is Zero Hour?

A. When the proposals of the opposition are considered.
B. When matters of utmost importance are raised.
C. Interval between morning and afternoon sessions.
D. When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha.

Correct Answer: B. When matters of utmost importance are raised.

21. “A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be stopped” is known in parliamentary terminology as

A. Session
B. Closure
C. Resolution
D. De jure

Correct Answer: B. Closure

Topic 4: Supreme Court and Judiciary

22. Supreme Court of India has given a landmark guideline spelled out the restrictions on the Union Government’s power to dismiss a state government as per the Article 356 of the Indian Constitution in which of the following case?

A. Minerva Mills Case
B. S.R. Bommai Case
C. Sajjan Singh Case
D. Golaknath Case

Correct Answer: B. S.R. Bommai Case

23. Which among the following statement is correct?

A. There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court only can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.
B. There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court and High Courts can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.
C. There are provisions that a retired judge of High Courts only can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B. There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court and High Courts can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.

24. Judicial Review power of the Supreme Court means the power to

A. review its own judgement.
B. review the functioning of judiciary in the country.
C. examine the constitutional validity of the laws.
D. undertake periodic review of the constitution.

Correct Answer: C. examine the constitutional validity of the laws.

Topic 5: Governor

25. The Governor of a state can

A. nominate one third members of Legislative Assembly.
B. nominate one sixth members of Legislative Assembly.
C. nominate one third members of Legislative Council.
D. nominate one sixth members of Legislative Council.

Correct Answer: C. nominate one third members of Legislative Council.

Topic 6: Advocate General

26. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate General of State?

A. Article 155
B. Article 165
C. Article 175
D. Article 185

Correct Answer: B. Article 165

Topic 7: Fundamental Rights

27. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been the subject of maximum litigation and controversy?

A. Right to Property
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Equality
D. Right to Freedom of Religion

Correct Answer: A. Right to Property

28. Which one of the following features has been wrongly listed as a feature of Right to Equality?

A. It ensures equality in the matter of appointment to offices under the State.
B. It abolishes all titles, other than academic and military.
C. It abolishes untouchability.
D. It prohibits special treatments of any section of society.

Correct Answer: D. It prohibits special treatments of any section of society.

29. The Six Freedoms of the Indian Citizens have been enshrined in

A. Articles 14 to 18
B. Articles 14 to 35
C. Article 19
D. Article 22

Correct Answer: C. Article 19

30. ‘Contempt of Court’ places restriction on which Fundamental Right?

A. Right to Freedom
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Equality
D. Right to Religion

Correct Answer: A. Right to Freedom

31. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
B. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency.
C. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency. (Duplicate option in original)
D. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency as well as emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.

Correct Answer: B. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency.

Topic 8: Directive Principles of State Policy

32. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution directs the state to strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting the social order in which justice, social, economic and political shall prevail?

A. Article 25
B. Article 38
C. Article 32
D. Article 39

Correct Answer: B. Article 38

33. Which Article of the Constitution directs the State to ensure that the wealth and means of production do not get concentrated in few hands?

A. Article 38
B. Article 39
C. Article 41
D. Article 42

Correct Answer: B. Article 39

34. Which Article of the constitution seeks to promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections of people, specially the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes?

A. Article 42
B. Article 46
C. Article 39
D. Article 44

Correct Answer: B. Article 46

35. Which among the following was the first programme launched by Government of India to implement the Article 47 of the directive principles of state policy?

A. Integrated Rural Development Programme
B. Community Development Programme
C. National Rural Employment Programme
D. Desert Development Programme

Correct Answer: B. Community Development Programme

36. Which among the following justifies the reason that Directive Principles were made explicitly unjustifiable?

A. The state may not have political will to implement the principles.
B. The state may not need to implement the principles as the Fundamental Rights were made justifiable.
C. The implementation of the principles needs resources which the states may not have.
D. The Constitution does not provide any clear guidelines to implement the principles.

Correct Answer: C. The implementation of the principles needs resources which the states may not have.

37. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a Directive Principle?

A. Provision of adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens.
B. Provision of employment facilities to all able-bodied persons.
C. Protection of workers, especially children.
D. Securing of equal pay for equal work to both men and women.

Correct Answer: B. Provision of employment facilities to all able-bodied persons.

38. Which one of the following Directive Principles is non-Gandhian?

A. Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas.
B. Prohibition of the use of intoxicants except for the medicinal purposes.
C. Prevention of slaughter of cows, calves and other milch cattle.
D. Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children up to the age of fourteen years.

Correct Answer: D. Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children up to the age of fourteen years.

39. Who said that Directive Principles of State Policy are like a cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank?

A. Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Dr. B. N. Rau
C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Prof. K. T. Shah

Correct Answer: C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

40. Which one of the following differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles has been wrongly listed?

A. The Fundamental Rights are negative injunctions, while the Directive Principles are positive instructions to the government.
B. The Fundamental Rights are justiciable while the Directive Principles are non-justiciable.
C. The Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional basis while the Directive Principles are based on conventions.
D. In case of clash between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles the former get precedence.

Correct Answer: C. The Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional basis while the Directive Principles are based on conventions.

Topic 9: Writs

41. Which one of the following writs is issued by the high court to a lower court or a non-judicial public institution to stop proceedings in a particular case?

A. Habeas Corpus
B. Prohibition
C. Quo Warranto
D. Certiorari

Correct Answer: B. Prohibition

42. Which one of the following writs is issued by a higher court asking the lower court to send the record of a particular case to it on the ground that it is not competent to decide the case?

A. Habeas Corpus
B. Quo Warranto
C. Certiorari
D. Mandamus

Correct Answer: C. Certiorari

43. The writ of prohibition issued by Supreme Court or High Court is issued against

A. Administrative and Judicial authorities.
B. Only administrative authorities.
C. Judicial or quasi judicial authorities.
D. Government.

Correct Answer: C. Judicial or quasi judicial authorities.

Topic 10: Constitutional Amendments

44. The concept of the basic structure of the constitution propounded in the Keshavanand Bharati case was further elaborated and strengthened in

A. Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain case
B. Minerva Mills case
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C. Both A and B

45. Which amendment authorised the govt. to fill the backlog of vacancies for the Scheduled Castes (15%) and Scheduled Tribes (7%) as these two vacancies are to be treated as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in any succeeding year or years?

A. 81st
B. 85th
C. 86th
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A. 81st

46. Which amendment empowered the state to make provisions for reservation in promotion in government jobs in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

A. 74th Amendment
B. 75th Amendment
C. 77th Amendment
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C. 77th Amendment

47. The First Amendment to the Constitution carried out in 1951 sought to provide socio-economic justice to the citizens.

A. by securing constitutional validity of thirteen Zamindari Abolition Laws in the 9th schedule.
B. by laying the ceiling on immovable property which a citizen could hold.
C. by reserving seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Parliament and state legislatures.
D. by making provision for compulsory acquisition of property in public interest, with minimum compensation.

Correct Answer: A. by securing constitutional validity of thirteen Zamindari Abolition Laws in the 9th schedule.

48. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes was created by

A. 87th Amendment
B. 88th Amendment
C. 89th Amendment
D. 92nd Amendment

Correct Answer: C. 89th Amendment

49. Which one of the following amendments of the Constitution abolished the Privy Purses and privileges of the Indian princes?

A. 26th Amendment
B. 28th Amendment
C. 30th Amendment
D. 32nd Amendment

Correct Answer: A. 26th Amendment

50. Which one of the following amendments was concerned with the extension of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes?

A. Eighth Amendment
B. 23rd Amendment
C. 45th Amendment
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

51. Which one of the following amendment of the Constitution did away with the privileges and concessions enjoyed by the I.C.S. Officers?

A. 24th Amendment
B. 28th Amendment
C. 29th Amendment
D. 42nd Amendment

Correct Answer: B. 28th Amendment

52. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

A. 64th
B. 65th
C. 68th
D. 70th

Correct Answer: B. 65th

53. Which one of the following amendments of the Constitution is related with right to private property?

A. First Amendment
B. Fourth Amendment
C. Seventeenth Amendment
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

54. Which one of the following amendments sought to overcome the restrictions on the powers of the Parliament to amend the Fundamental Rights (as per decision of Supreme Court in Golak Nath case)?

A. 23rd Amendment
B. 24th Amendment
C. 25th Amendment
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B. 24th Amendment

55. The Constitution was amended for the first time in

A. 1961
B. 1971
C. 1951
D. 1981

Correct Answer: C. 1951

56. The 59th Constitutional Amendment act was intended to,

A. Curb political defection
B. Impose emergency in Punjab
C. Prevent the practice of Sati
D. Prevent communal disturbance

Correct Answer: B. Impose emergency in Punjab

57. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by the 80th Amendment Bill?

A. Article 268
B. Article 269
C. Article 270
D. Article 272

Correct Answer: D. Article 272

58. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the purview of the procedure of amendment as prescribed in Article 368?

A. Article 54
B. Article 55
C. Article 214
D. Article 169

Correct Answer: D. Article 169

Topic 11: Schedules of the Constitution

59. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

A. Schedule Two – Salaries and Allowances
B. Schedule Five – Scheduled Areas
C. Schedule Six – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram
D. Schedule Ten – Panchayats

Correct Answer: D. Schedule Ten – Panchayats

Topic 12: Panchayati Raj

60. The Article 243F deals with

A. disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.
B. every panchayat is continued for a period of 5 years.
C. the panchayat can impose taxes and raise funds.
D. some seats are reserved for SCs and STs in the states.

Correct Answer: A. disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.

61. In which year was the first Panchayat election held?

A. 1978
B. 1980
C. 1982
D. 1981

Correct Answer: A. 1978

62. Who summons the meeting of the Gram Panchayat Sabha?

A. BDO
B. SDO
C. Gram Pradhan
D. Zilla Parishad

Correct Answer: C. Gram Pradhan

63. When is the annual meeting of Gram Sabha being held?

A. December
B. June
C. October
D. August

Correct Answer: C. October

Topic 13: Constitutional Bodies

64. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the

A. Planning Commission
B. Inter-State Council
C. River waters Tribunal
D. Finance Commission

Correct Answer: D. Finance Commission

65. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members upto the age of

A. 60 years
B. 58 years
C. 62 years
D. 65 years

Correct Answer: C. 62 years

66. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office of Profit?

A. 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
B. 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
C. 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
D. 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha

Correct Answer: A. 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

Topic 14: Centre-State Relations

67. The administrative relation between the centre and the state are outlined in

A. Articles 256-263
B. Articles 245-254
C. Articles 264-300
D. Articles 250-260

Correct Answer: A. Articles 256-263

Topic 15: Preamble

68. Choose the incorrect sentence among the following:

A. The objective resolution passed by Pt. Nehru was what became the Preamble of our constitution.
B. Preamble is enforceable in court of law.
C. Preamble of Indian constitution has been amended only once in 1976.
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the strongest advocate of socialism.

Correct Answer: B. Preamble is enforceable in court of law.

Topic 16: Constitutional History

69. The Assam Reorganization Act, 1969 created which of the following state/states?

A. Meghalaya only
B. Meghalaya and Mizoram
C. Mizoram only
D. Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland

Correct Answer: A. Meghalaya only

70. Which among the following act is the latest?

A. The Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh (transfer of Territories) Act
B. Bihar Reorganization Act
C. Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act
D. Madhya Pradesh Reorganization Act

Correct Answer: B. Bihar Reorganization Act

71. Rajaji Formula was suggested by C. Rajagopalachari in 1944 primarily with a view to

A. resolve the political deadlock in the country.
B. seek the withdrawal of communal electorates.
C. secure greater weightage for the Congress in provincial govt.
D. impress on the government to withdraw from India within a year of the close of Second World War.

Correct Answer: A. resolve the political deadlock in the country.

72. The demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time authoritatively conceded by the British Government, though in an indirect way, through

A. Shimla Conference
B. August Offer
C. Wavell Plan
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B. August Offer

73. Indian Legislature became “bicameral” through which of the following?

A. The Morley-Minto Reforms
B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Councils Act, 1892

Correct Answer: B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

74. Before 26 November, 1949 which among the following was the governing law of India?

A. The Cabinet Mission Plan
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Government of India Act, 1919
D. Government of India Act, 1909

Correct Answer: B. Government of India Act, 1935

75. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was not a member of which of the following committees of the constituent assembly?

A. Committee on the rules of procedure
B. Finance and Staff Committee
C. Ad hoc Committee on National Flag
D. Order of Business Committee

Correct Answer: D. Order of Business Committee

76. Which among the following best supported the idea of inclusion of fundamental rights in our constitution?

A. Simon Commission, 1927
B. Nehru Committee Report, 1928
C. Swaraj Bill, 1895
D. Sapru Committee Report on Constitutional proposals, 1945

Correct Answer: B. Nehru Committee Report, 1928

77. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India in

A. July 1946
B. July 1950
C. July 1947
D. August 1947

Correct Answer: C. July 1947

78. How many members were there in Constitutional Assembly?

A. 389
B. 395
C. 405
D. 379

Correct Answer: A. 389

Topic 17: Article 13 and Doctrines

79. Article 13 of Indian constitution uses the words- “to the extent of such inconsistency be void”-which of the following doctrines is coherent to this?

A. Doctrine of Eclipse
B. Doctrine of Waiver
C. Doctrine of Severability
D. Doctrine of Lapse

Correct Answer: C. Doctrine of Severability

80. “All those laws that were in force immediately before the enactment of the constitution shall be void to the extent of inconsistency with the fundamental rights.” Essence of Article 13(1) which quotes this can be placed under which of the following?

A. Judicial Activism
B. Judicial Review
C. Discretionary Review
D. Judicial Interpretation

Correct Answer: B. Judicial Review

Topic 18: Right to Constitutional Remedies

81. The Right to Constitutional Remedies means,

A. The right of the citizens to request the parliament to amend the Constitution.
B. The right of Indian citizens to mobilise public opinion in favour of some constitutional amendments.
C. The right of citizens to disobey the constitution in certain circumstances.
D. The right to move the courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights granted by the constitution.

Correct Answer: D. The right to move the courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights granted by the constitution.

Topic 19: Cultural and Educational Rights

82. The Constitution grants Cultural and Educational Rights with a view to

A. evolve a common national culture.
B. eradicate illiteracy from the country.
C. to help the minorities conserve their culture.
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C. to help the minorities conserve their culture.

83. Right to Cultural and Educational Rights implies,

A. Provision of free and compulsory education upto High School.
B. Special assistance to backward classes to educate them.
C. Provision of religious and cultural instructions in schools run by the government or receiving aid out of government funds.
D. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Correct Answer: D. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

84. Under which Article of the Constitution is protection and interests of the minorities is envisaged?

A. Article 32
B. Article 19
C. Article 29
D. Article 22

Correct Answer: C. Article 29

Topic 20: Linguistic Reorganization

85. Which was the first state established on the basis of linguistic?

A. U.P.
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Kerala

Correct Answer: B. Andhra Pradesh

Topic 21: Land Reforms

86. Operation Barga in West Bengal was introduced in

A. 1977
B. 1978
C. 1979
D. 1980

Correct Answer: B. 1978

87. The Untouchable Law was enacted in

A. 1950
B. 1952
C. 1951
D. 1953

Correct Answer: C. 1951

88. Which of the following was included as part of the land reforms initiated in India?

A. Abolition of intermediaries
B. Tenancy reforms
C. Reorganisation of agriculture
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

Topic 22: Citizenship

89. Which among the following Article deals with the rights of citizenships of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside of India?

A. Article 6
B. Article 7
C. Article 8
D. Article 9

Correct Answer: C. Article 8

Topic 23: Union Territories

90. In which year the Metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member legislative assembly?

A. 1990
B. 1992
C. 1993
D. 1994

Correct Answer: C. 1993

Topic 24: Parts of Constitution

91. Which of the following parts of Indian Constitution has only one article?

A. Part XVII
B. Part XVIII
C. Part XIX
D. Part XX

Correct Answer: D. Part XX

Topic 25: State Legislature

92. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?

A. 40
B. 60
C. 50
D. 70

Correct Answer: B. 60

Topic 26: Taxation

93. Which of the following duties is imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government?

A. Stamp Duties
B. Railways
C. Agriculture
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A. Stamp Duties

Topic 27: Zonal Councils

94. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal Councils?

A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Indian Independence Act, 1947
C. People’s Representation Act, 1950
D. States Reorganization Act, 1956

Correct Answer: D. States Reorganization Act, 1956

Topic 28: Lok Sabha

95. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha (552) was fixed according to

A. 1981 Census
B. 1961 Census
C. 1951 Census
D. 1971 Census

Correct Answer: D. 1971 Census

Topic 29: Committees

96. Which among the following committees recommended to set up an “Equal Opportunity Commission”?

A. Sarkaria Commission
B. Sachar Committee
C. Bhagawati Committee
D. Chawla Committee

Correct Answer: B. Sachar Committee

Topic 30: Council of States (Rajya Sabha)

97. In the Council of States in India, all the States are not equally represented, because

A. the states that joined the Indian Union did not demand equal representation.
B. no independent states existed in India, voluntarily seeking Union as in the USA.
C. in the Constituent Assembly the spokesmen of States’ rights did not demand equal representation.
D. the dominant Congress party in the Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.

Correct Answer: D. the dominant Congress party in the Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.

Topic 31: Miscellaneous

98. January 26, 1957 is known for which of the following?

A. Second parliamentary term began
B. Second general elections
C. Second five year plan terms started
D. Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force

Correct Answer: D. Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force

99. In Indian states the tribal population is largest in

A. Assam and Tripura
B. Kerala and Tamil Nadu
C. Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
D. Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand

Correct Answer: C. Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh

100. Which among the following pair is not correctly matched?

A. Part III – Fundamental Rights
B. Part XI – Relationships between the Union and States
C. Part XII – Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
D. Part XIX – Amendment of the constitution

Correct Answer: D. Part XIX – Amendment of the constitution

TOPIC-WISE SUMMARY

Topic No.Topic NameQuestion Numbers
1President1-11
2Prime Minister and Council of Ministers12-17
3Parliament18-21
4Supreme Court and Judiciary22-24
5Governor25
6Advocate General26
7Fundamental Rights27-31
8Directive Principles of State Policy32-40
9Writs41-43
10Constitutional Amendments44-58
11Schedules of the Constitution59
12Panchayati Raj60-63
13Constitutional Bodies64-66
14Centre-State Relations67
15Preamble68
16Constitutional History69-78
17Article 13 and Doctrines79-80
18Right to Constitutional Remedies81
19Cultural and Educational Rights82-84
20Linguistic Reorganization85
21Land Reforms86-88
22Citizenship89
23Union Territories90
24Parts of Constitution91
25State Legislature92
26Taxation93
27Zonal Councils94
28Lok Sabha95
29Committees96
30Council of States (Rajya Sabha)97
31Miscellaneous98-100