WBCS MAIN 2017 P-5 Polity MCQ
WBCS MAIN 2017 P-5 Polity One Liner Questions
TOPIC-WISE ONE-LINER QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
Topic 1: Preamble
1. By which amendment was the word ‘Secular’ incorporated in the Preamble?
Ans: 42nd Amendment
2. Which amendment substituted ‘Unity of the Nation’ with ‘Unity and integrity of the Nation’ in the Preamble?
Ans: 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
3. The expression ‘socialist’ in the Preamble was added taking the views of which two thinkers?
Ans: Marx and Gandhi
Topic 2: Fundamental Rights
4. Sexual harassment of working women amounts to violation of which Articles?
Ans: Articles 14, 15, 16
5. Which right did Dr. Ambedkar call the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Constitution?
Ans: Right to constitutional remedies
6. Article 14 of the Constitution is confined to whom?
Ans: To any person
7. Do Fundamental Rights have retrospective effect?
Ans: No, they have no retrospective effect under Article 13(1) or 13(3)(b)
8. Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office’ applies to which employments?
Ans: Only to public employments
9. Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion subject to which conditions?
Ans: Public order, morality, health and sovereignty and integrity of India
10. Which writ is considered the Bulwark of personal freedom?
Ans: Writ of Habeas Corpus
11. What does the expression ‘Prosecution’ under Article 20(2) contemplate?
Ans: A person must be accused of an offence
12. According to Article 18, what is prohibited without the consent of the President?
Ans: Accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any Foreign State
Topic 3: Directive Principles of State Policy
13. From which country is the concept of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ borrowed?
Ans: Ireland
14. Right to work in India is which type of right?
Ans: Directive Principle
15. Are Directive Principles justiciable rights of citizens?
Ans: No, they are directives in the nature of ideals of the State
16. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is which type of principle?
Ans: Directive Principles of State Policy
17. In Article 45, up to what age shall the State provide early childhood care and education?
Ans: Below the age of 6
18. If the Directive Principles of State Policy are infringed, is there any remedy in court?
Ans: No
19. Which Article deals with the uniform civil code for citizens?
Ans: Article 44
20. After the Minerva Mills case, what does Article 31C mean?
Ans: The Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and (c) supersede fundamental rights
Topic 4: Fundamental Duties
21. How many Fundamental Duties are there in Part IVA of the Constitution?
Ans: 11
22. In which case was it enunciated that fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs but can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes?
Ans: Magan Bhai v. UOI
23. Fundamental duties under Article 51A are confined to whom?
Ans: Citizens of India
Topic 5: Centre-State Relations
24. When can Parliament legislate on matters in the State List?
Ans: When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by 2/3rd majority
25. Which Article deals with repugnancy between Central Law and State Law?
Ans: Article 254
26. The distribution of power between Centre and States is based on which Act?
Ans: Government of India Act, 1935
27. How many subjects does the State List contain?
Ans: 66 subjects
28. How many items does the Union List contain?
Ans: 97 items
29. Which Act changed the character of Indian Government from Unitary to Federal?
Ans: Government of India Act, 1935
Topic 6: Parliament
30. What is the minimum support required to introduce a No-confidence Motion in Lok Sabha?
Ans: 10% of Lok Sabha members
31. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee?
Ans: Speaker of Lok Sabha
32. Seats in Lok Sabha are not reserved for which community?
Ans: Anglo-Indian
33. Who signs the Certificate on a Money Bill?
Ans: Speaker of the House of the People
34. The Freedom of Speech of an MP during a session is what type of freedom?
Ans: Almost absolute
35. How many days’ notice is required to move a resolution to remove the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Ans: 30 days
36. How many Anglo-Indian members are nominated to Lok Sabha by the President?
Ans: 2
37. The Constitution provides a special procedure for which type of Bills?
Ans: Money Bills
38. For how long can Rajya Sabha withhold a Money Bill?
Ans: 14 days
39. Can Rajya Sabha reject a Money Bill?
Ans: No
40. From which fields are the 12 nominated members of Rajya Sabha chosen?
Ans: Literature, science, art and social science
41. Can the Council of Ministers be suspended during a session?
Ans: No
Topic 7: President
42. In the Presidential election, what kind of vote does each member of the Electoral College have?
Ans: One vote with particular value attached to it
43. The power of the President to issue an ordinance is which type of power?
Ans: Legislative power
44. How many times can the President seek re-election?
Ans: As many times as he desires
45. How does the President exercise the power to grant pardons under Article 72?
Ans: On the advice of Council of Ministers
46. The power to issue ordinance by the President is which type of power?
Ans: Legislative Power
47. Who acts as President when both the President and Vice President are unavailable?
Ans: Chief Justice of India
48. Which Article gives the President power to issue ordinances?
Ans: Article 123
49. Which constitutional authorities enjoy the power to grant pardons?
Ans: President and Governor of a state
50. Which Articles deal with the oath and impeachment of the President?
Ans: Article 60 & Article 61
51. The vote value in Presidential election is based on population of which year?
Ans: 1971
Topic 8: Vice-President
52. When does the term of office of the Vice President begin?
Ans: From the date he enters upon his office
53. Which authority inquires into matters relating to the election of the Vice President?
Ans: Supreme Court
Topic 9: Governor
54. Who decides whether a matter falls under the Governor’s discretion?
Ans: The Governor
55. Which Article deals with the Governor’s power to promulgate ordinances?
Ans: Article 213
56. Whose approval is required for ordinances issued by the Governor?
Ans: State Legislature
57. To whom does the Governor address his resignation?
Ans: President
58. Which Article gives the Governor power to grant pardons?
Ans: Article 161
Topic 10: Supreme Court
59. By whom was the present strength of Supreme Court judges fixed?
Ans: Parliament in 1986
60. Who expressed that the Supreme Court of India has more powers than any other Supreme Court?
Ans: K.M. Munshi
61. In which case did the Supreme Court strike down a part of the Prevention Detention Act?
Ans: Gopalan case
62. Who preserves the Constitution as the supreme law of the land?
Ans: The Supreme Court
63. Who can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?
Ans: The President of India
64. In which court can a jurist be appointed as a judge?
Ans: Supreme Court
Topic 11: High Courts
65. How are High Court judges appointed in India?
Ans: By National Judicial Appointment Commission
Topic 12: Union Public Service Commission
66. To whom does UPSC submit its Annual Report?
Ans: The President
67. Whom does the UPSC serve?
Ans: Entire Nation
68. Under Article 321, who has the power to extend functions of UPSC?
Ans: Parliament
Topic 13: State Public Service Commission
69. Who can remove the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission?
Ans: The President of India
Topic 14: Attorney General
70. During whose pleasure does the Attorney General hold office?
Ans: President
71. Who among the following holds office at the pleasure of the President?
Ans: Attorney General of India
Topic 15: Election Commission
72. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
Ans: President
Topic 16: Finance Commission
73. How often is the Finance Commission constituted by the President?
Ans: Every 5 years
74. Which Article deals with the Backward Classes Commission?
Ans: Article 340
Topic 17: Schedules
75. What does the Xth Schedule of the Constitution deal with?
Ans: Defections
76. What was the Oriya language renamed as by the 96th Amendment Act, 2011?
Ans: Odia
Topic 18: Constitutional Amendments
77. In which case was the first Constitutional Amendment challenged?
Ans: Sankari Prasad v. UOI
78. What did the 1st Amendment to the Constitution insert?
Ans: Article 31A, 31B and 9th Schedule
79. How many amendments had been made till the time of this exam?
Ans: 101
80. Which amendment inserted the provision that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made in Article 368?
Ans: Constitution Act (24th Amendment)
Topic 19: Amendment Procedure
81. Constitutional amendments are made by exercise of which power of Parliament?
Ans: Constituent power
82. What does Article 368 deal with?
Ans: Power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
83. In which House can Constitution Amendment Bills be initiated?
Ans: Either House
84. What majority is required to change the name of a State or create a new State?
Ans: Simple majority under Articles 107 and 108
Topic 20: Writs
85. Which writ literally means ‘Under what authority’?
Ans: Quo-warranto
86. Who can give power to any other court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
Ans: Parliament by exercise of legislative power
Topic 21: National Development Council
87. What type of body is the National Development Council?
Ans: Non-political body
Topic 22: National Capital Territory of Delhi
88. Which Amendment constituted the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
Ans: 69th Amendment
Topic 23: Panchayati Raj
89. How are elections to Gram Panchayats conducted?
Ans: Direct on the basis of adult franchise
Topic 24: Inter-State Council
90. Which statement about Inter-State Council is not true?
Ans: It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution
Topic 25: Miscellaneous
91. What does Article 73 confer upon the Union?
Ans: Right, authority and jurisdiction
92. In which Article does ‘Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law’ appear?
Ans: Article 265
93. In which decade did Judicial Activism gain currency in India?
Ans: 1980’s
94. Which section of IPC was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court?
Ans: Section 303
95. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
96. Who wrote the First Commentary on the Constitution of India?
Ans: Dr. Bijan Kumar Mukherjee
97. From which Constitution is the Indian Constitution NOT borrowed?
Ans: Constitution of China
98. What is the maximum period for which President’s Rule can remain in a state?
Ans: One year
99. Which Act changed the character of Indian Government from Unitary to Federal?
Ans: Government of India Act, 1935
100. Is there any remedy if Directive Principles are infringed?
Ans: No
TOPIC-WISE SUMMARY
| Topic No. | Topic Name | Question Numbers |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Preamble | 1-3 |
| 2 | Fundamental Rights | 4-12 |
| 3 | Directive Principles | 13-20 |
| 4 | Fundamental Duties | 21-23 |
| 5 | Centre-State Relations | 24-29 |
| 6 | Parliament | 30-41 |
| 7 | President | 42-51 |
| 8 | Vice-President | 52-53 |
| 9 | Governor | 54-58 |
| 10 | Supreme Court | 59-64 |
| 11 | High Courts | 65 |
| 12 | Union Public Service Commission | 66-68 |
| 13 | State Public Service Commission | 69 |
| 14 | Attorney General | 70-71 |
| 15 | Election Commission | 72 |
| 16 | Finance Commission | 73-74 |
| 17 | Schedules | 75-76 |
| 18 | Constitutional Amendments | 77-80 |
| 19 | Amendment Procedure | 81-84 |
| 20 | Writs | 85-86 |
| 21 | National Development Council | 87 |
| 22 | National Capital Territory of Delhi | 88 |
| 23 | Panchayati Raj | 89 |
| 24 | Inter-State Council | 90 |
| 25 | Miscellaneous | 91-100 |
WBCS MAIN 2017 P-5 Polity MCQ
Topic 1: Preamble
1. In the Preamble of the Constitution of India the word ‘Secular’ was incorporated by:
A. 1st Amendment of the Constitution of India
B. 15th Amendment of the Constitution of India
C. 27th Amendment of the Constitution of India
D. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India
Answer: D. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India
2. By which amendment Act ‘Unity of the Nation’ was substituted by ‘Unity and integrity of the Nation’ in the Preamble of the Constitution?
A. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
B. 45th Amendment Act, 1980
C. 44th Amendment Act, 1979
D. None of the above
Answer: A. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
3. Expression ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India has been added by taking the views of:
A. Marx and Laski
B. Marx and Gandhi
C. Rousseau and Gandhi
D. Gandhi and Hegel
Answer: B. Marx and Gandhi
Topic 2: Fundamental Rights (Part III)
4. Sexual harassment of working women amounts to violation of the rights guaranteed by:
A. Articles 14, 15, 23
B. Articles 14, 15, 16
C. Articles 13, 14, 15
D. Not provided in options
Answer: B. Articles 14, 15, 16
5. Which one of the following rights, according to Dr. Ambedkar is the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Constitution of India?
A. Right to education
B. Right to freedom of religion
C. Right to work
D. Right to constitutional remedies
Answer: D. Right to constitutional remedies
6. Article 14 of the Constitution of India is confined to:
A. The citizens of India only
B. To any person
C. To citizens of Common Wealth Countries
D. None of the above
Answer: B. To any person
7. The Fundamental Rights have:
A. retrospective effect
B. have no retrospective effect under Article 13(1) or 13(3)(b)
C. have only future effect
D. None of the above
Answer: B. have no retrospective effect under Article 13(1) or 13(3)(b)
8. Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office applies’:
A. private employments
B. only to public employments
C. both public and private employments
D. None of the above
Answer: B. only to public employments
9. Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion, is subject to:
A. Public order, morality, health and other Fundamental Rights
B. Public order, morality and health
C. Public order, morality, health and sovereignty and integrity of India
D. Public order, morality and Secularism
Answer: C. Public order, morality, health and sovereignty and integrity of India
10. Which one of the following is Bulwark of the personal freedom?
A. Writ of Mandamus
B. Writ of Habeas Corpus
C. Writ of Certiorari
D. Writ of Evocation
Answer: B. Writ of Habeas Corpus
11. The expression ‘Prosecution’ under Article 20(2) contemplates:
A. the proceeding should not be under a law which creates offenses
B. a person must be accused of an offence
C. guilt is nor criterion for prosecution
D. prosecution is possible only after the final verdict from the Court
Answer: B. a person must be accused of an offence
12. Which of the following are prohibited without the Consent of the President of India according to Article 18?
A. conferment of title
B. accepting any title from any Foreign State
C. accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any Foreign State
D. receiving title with money
Answer: C. accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any Foreign State
Topic 3: Directive Principles (Part IV)
13. The concept of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ is borrowed from:
A. Ireland
B. England
C. Scotland
D. United Kingdom
Answer: A. Ireland
14. Right to work in India is:
A. Fundamental right
B. Directive Principle
C. Constitutional duty
D. Not a fundamental right but can be claimed after employment
Answer: B. Directive Principle
15. Consider the following statements: Directives Principles of State Policy are:
- directives in the nature of ideals of the State
- directives administering and legislating the policy of State
- justiciable rights of the Citizens
A. 1
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A. 1
16. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a:
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Right
C. Matter of State Policy
D. Is a matter of Labour Law
Answer: A. Directive Principles of State Policy
17. In Article 45, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education to children below the age of:
A. 8
B. 15
C. 12
D. 6
Answer: D. 6
18. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed:
A. there is remedy in court
B. there is remedy in Lok Adalat
C. there is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
19. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the uniform civil code for the citizens?
A. Article 44
B. Article 21
C. Article 37
D. Article 45
Answer: A. Article 44
20. After the judgment of Minerva Mills v. UOI, the provision of Article 31C means:
A. All Directive Principles supersede fundamental rights
B. No Directive Principles can supersede the fundamental rights
C. The Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (a) supersede the fundamental rights
D. The Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b), (c) supersede the fundamental rights
Answer: D. The Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b), (c) supersede the fundamental rights
Topic 4: Fundamental Duties (Part IVA)
21. In Part IVA of the Constitution of India every Indian citizen has how many Fundamental Duties?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 8
Answer: C. 11
22. ‘Provisions relating to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be only promoted by constitutional methods. But they can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes’. In which of the cases was this principle enunciated?
A. Motilal v. State of UP
B. Civil Rights Committee v. UOI
C. Head Masters v. UOI
D. Magan Bhai v. UOI
Answer: D. Magan Bhai v. UOI
23. Fundamental duties under Article 51A is confined to:
A. Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
B. Public servants
C. All those who run public sector enterprise
D. Citizens of India
Answer: D. Citizens of India
Topic 5: Centre-State Relations
24. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List:
A. When a party enjoys 2/3rd majority in the House
B. By the consent of the legislature of the State concerned
C. When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by 2/3rd majority
D. With the consent of the President and Chief Justice of India
Answer: C. When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by 2/3rd majority
25. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in:
A. Article 254
B. Article 300
C. Entry 42, List III
D. Article 156
Answer: A. Article 254
26. The distribution of power between Centre and the States is based on the scheme provided in:
A. Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909
B. Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: C. Government of India Act, 1935
27. The State List contains:
A. 96 subjects
B. 106 subjects
C. 66 subjects
D. 79 subjects
Answer: C. 66 subjects
28. List I (Union List) in Seventh schedule contain how many items?
A. 76
B. 87
C. 97
D. 99
Answer: C. 97
29. Which of the following legislation brought the character of Indian Government from ‘Unitary’ to ‘Federal’?
A. Indian Council Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: C. Government of India Act, 1935
Topic 6: Parliament
30. A ‘No-confidence Motion’ in the Lok Sabha can be introduced by the support of at least:
A. 10% of the Lok Sabha members
B. 50% of the Lok Sabha members
C. By all the opposition members
D. By any single member of the Lok Sabha
Answer: A. 10% of the Lok Sabha members
31. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
32. Seats to Lok Sabha are not reserved for:
A. Schedule Castes
B. Schedule Tribes
C. Schedule Tribes in Autonomous Districts of Assam
D. Anglo-Indian
Answer: D. Anglo-Indian
33. The Certificate to a Money Bill is signed by:
A. The Prime Minister of India
B. The Leader of Opposition of the House of the People
C. The Finance Minister of India
D. The Speaker of the House of the People
Answer: D. The Speaker of the House of the People
34. The Freedom of Speech of a Member of Parliament during the sojourn of Session is:
A. almost absolute
B. subject to restriction of Fundamental Right
C. is regulated by the Parliament itself
D. is similar to that of an advocate acting on behalf of his client
Answer: A. almost absolute
35. Minimum how many days notice is required to move the resolution to remove the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States?
A. 10 days
B. 14 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D. 30 days
36. The President nominates how many Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha?
A. 5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 7
Answer: C. 2
37. The Constitution of India provides special procedure for:
A. Financial Bills
B. Money Bills
C. Both Money and Financial Bills
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Money Bills
38. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of:
A. 14 days
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. None of the above
Answer: A. 14 days
39. Money Bill can be:
A. Invalid by Rajya Sabha
B. Invalid by both the Houses
C. Rajya Sabha can reject the bill
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
40. The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by the President from amongst the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in:
A. Literature, science, art and social science
B. Literature, art and law
C. Literature, science and philosophy
D. Literature, science and art
Answer: A. Literature, science, art and social science
41. Council of Ministers can be suspended during session:
A. By Prime Minister of India
B. By Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. By Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
Topic 7: President
42. In the Election of the President, each Member of the Electoral College has:
A. one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates
B. one vote as many votes there are candidates
C. one vote with particular value attached to it
D. one vote
Answer: C. one vote with particular value attached to it
43. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a:
A. Executive power
B. Legislative power
C. Constituent power
D. Quasi-judicial power
Answer: B. Legislative power
44. Give correct response to:
A. The President of India can seek re-election as many times under the Letter of Constitution, but there is well established convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two terms
B. The President of India is ineligible for re-election
C. The President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three times
D. The President of India is eligible for re-election as many times he desires
Answer: D. The President of India is eligible for re-election as many times he desires
45. The power to grant pardons, reprieves, or remissions of punishment under Article 72 is exercised by the President of India:
A. on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. on his own as Head of the Union
C. on the advice of Council of Ministers
D. in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet
Answer: C. on the advice of Council of Ministers
46. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a:
A. Executive Power
B. Legislative Power
C. Constituent Power
D. Quasi-Judicial Power
Answer: B. Legislative Power
47. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected?
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Leader of the majority party
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Senior-most Governor
Answer: C. Chief Justice of India
48. Which Article of the Constitution of India prescribes power to The President to issue Ordinance?
A. Article 123
B. Article 72
C. Article 125
D. Article 254
Answer: A. Article 123
49. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which of the following constitutional authorities?
A. President
B. President and Governor of a state
C. Governor
D. Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
Answer: B. President and Governor of a state
50. Which of the following pair of articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India?
A. Article 60 & Article 61
B. Article 62 & Article 63
C. Article 99 & Article 100
D. Article 72 & Article 73
Answer: A. Article 60 & Article 61
51. The Vote value of the voters in the President Election in India are based on the population count of the respective State for the year:
A. 2010
B. 1969
C. 1971
D. 1991
Answer: C. 1971
Topic 8: Vice-President
52. The term of the office of Vice President is:
A. five years from the date on which he takes oath of the office
B. five years from the date on which he enters upon his office
C. five years from the date of his election is announced
D. five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office
Answer: B. five years from the date on which he enters upon his office
53. All matters relating to the election of the Vice President including any election petition shall be inquired into by:
A. Election Tribunal specifically constituted for the purpose
B. Supreme Court
C. A Committee constituted for the purpose by Rajya Sabha
D. Any High Court where the petition is moved
Answer: B. Supreme Court
Topic 9: Governor
54. Who is to decide whether any matter is a matter where the Governor has to act in his discretion?
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Supreme Court of India
C. The High Court of the concerned state
D. The Governor
Answer: D. The Governor
55. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature?
A. Article 206
B. Article 208
C. Article 213
D. Article 212
Answer: C. Article 213
56. The Ordinance issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by:
A. President
B. Chief Minister
C. State Legislature
D. None of the above
Answer: C. State Legislature
57. If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his term, he may address his resignation to:
A. Chief Minister of the State
B. Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
C. Prime Minister
D. President
Answer: D. President
58. Power of Governor to grant pardon etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in:
A. Article 159
B. Article 161
C. Article 162
D. Article 163
Answer: B. Article 161
Topic 10: Supreme Court
59. The present strength of the Judges of the Supreme Court was fixed by:
A. The original Constitution
B. Parliament in 1958
C. Parliament in 1977
D. Parliament in 1986
Answer: D. Parliament in 1986
60. Who expressed the view that ‘Supreme Court of India has more powers than any other Supreme Court in any part of the world’?
A. Justice Khanna
B. Dr. B.M. Rao
C. K.M. Munshi
D. A. Krishna Iyer
Answer: C. K.M. Munshi
61. The Supreme Court struck down a part of the Prevention detention Act in the:
A. Gopalan case
B. Golaknath case
C. Ramesh Thappar case
D. Kochumni case
Answer: A. Gopalan case
62. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land. It is preserved by:
A. The Cabinet
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Constituent Assembly
D. The Parliament
Answer: B. The Supreme Court
63. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?
A. The President of India
B. The Parliament of India
C. The Governor of a State
D. The Prime Minister of India
Answer: A. The President of India
64. A jurist can be appointed in which of the Court below?
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. In the District Court
D. Special Court
Answer: A. Supreme Court
Topic 11: High Courts
65. High Court judges in India are appointed:
A. exclusively by the Collegium of the Supreme Court of India
B. by National Judicial Appointment Commission
C. by Prime Minister in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
D. by Parliament in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Answer: B. by National Judicial Appointment Commission
Topic 12: Union Public Service Commission
66. UPSC submits its Annual Report on its work to:
A. The Parliament
B. The Union Home Minister
C. The President
D. The Chief Justice of India
Answer: C. The President
67. The UPSC has to serve only:
A. Selected States
B. Entire Nation
C. Union Territories
D. Depends on President’s will
Answer: B. Entire Nation
68. Under Article 321 of the Constitution of India the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the:
A. President of India
B. Parliament
C. Chairman of the Commission
D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B. Parliament
Topic 13: State Public Service Commission
69. The Chairman of the Public Service Commission of a State can be removed from his office by:
A. The President of India
B. The Governor of the State
C. The Legislative Council of the State
D. The High Court of the State
Answer: A. The President of India
Topic 14: Attorney General
70. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. Chief Minister
Answer: A. President
71. Who among the following holds his/her office at pleasure of the President?
A. Chairman of UPSC
B. Attorney General of India
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Answer: B. Attorney General of India
Topic 15: Election Commission
72. The Chief Election Commissioner is:
A. Elected by Parliament
B. Appointed by Home Minister
C. Appointed by Prime Minister
D. Appointed by President
Answer: D. Appointed by President
Topic 16: Finance Commission
73. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years
Answer: C. 5 years
74. Article 340 of the Constitution of India deals with:
A. Finance Commission
B. Election Commission
C. Backward Classes Commission
D. UPSC
Answer: C. Backward Classes Commission
Topic 17: Schedules of the Constitution
75. Xth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with:
A. the Finance Commission
B. the Election Commission
C. defections
D. Other Backward Classes
Answer: C. defections
76. The Constitution 96th Amendment Act, 2011 altered the language of Oriya in 8th Schedule as:
A. Oriyan
B. Orea
C. Orriya
D. Odia
Answer: D. Odia
Topic 18: Constitutional Amendments
77. The first Constitutional Amendment was challenged in the case:
A. Sankari Prasad v. UOI
B. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
C. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
D. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Answer: A. Sankari Prasad v. UOI
78. The 1st Amendment to the Constitution of India inserted:
A. Article 31A, 31B and 9th Schedule
B. Article 32 and 226
C. Amended Article 246
D. Abolished the jurisdiction of Privy Council
Answer: A. Article 31A, 31B and 9th Schedule
79. How many amendments of the constitution have been made till date?
A. 99
B. 100
C. 101
D. 102
Answer: C. 101
80. Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made in this Article was inserted in Article 368 by:
A. Constitution Act (25th Amendment)
B. Constitution Act (24th Amendment)
C. Constitution Act (45th Amendment)
D. Constitution Act (42nd Amendment)
Answer: B. Constitution Act (24th Amendment)
Topic 19: Amendment Procedure
81. Amendment of the Constitution of India are made by exercise of:
A. Constitutional power of the Parliament
B. Inherent power of the Parliament
C. Legislative power of the Parliament
D. Constituent power of the Parliament
Answer: D. Constituent power of the Parliament
82. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India as it stands today deals with:
A. power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
B. authority of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India
C. procedure for Amendment of the Constitution to be followed by the Parliament
D. passing and Ratification of Amendment Bills by State Legislature
Answer: A. power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
83. The Constitution Amendment Bills are initiated in:
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Either House
D. Rajya Sabha with prior approval from Lok Sabha
Answer: C. Either House
84. In the event of changing the name of the State or for creation of a new State, the Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a:
A. simple majority as required under Articles 107 and 108
B. majority of total members of both the Houses under Article 368
C. special majority under Article 368
D. special majority after obtaining opinion of the concerned State under Article 3 of the Constitution
Answer: A. simple majority as required under Articles 107 and 108
Topic 20: Writs
85. Which one of the following Writs literally means ‘Under what authority’?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Certiorari
C. Prohibition
D. Quo-warranto
Answer: D. Quo-warranto
86. The power to issue appropriate writs for enforcement of rights conferred by PART – III of the Constitution of India may be given to any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction by:
A. exercise of legislative power of the Parliament
B. promulgation of an Ordinance
C. passing a resolution in both the Houses
D. parliament in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
Answer: A. exercise of legislative power of the Parliament
Topic 21: National Development Council
87. National Development Council is:
A. Political body
B. Non-political body
C. Statutory body
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Non-political body
Topic 22: National Capital Territory of Delhi
88. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by:
A. 69th Amendment
B. 75th Amendment
C. 81st Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment
Answer: A. 69th Amendment
Topic 23: Panchayati Raj
89. Election to the Gram Panchayats are:
A. by indirect method
B. by legislatures of the State
C. to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
D. by Council of Ministers
Answer: C. to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
Topic 24: Inter-State Council
90. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true regarding ‘Inter State Council’?
A. It is required to meet at least three every year
B. It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution of India
C. Decision of the Chairman is bound by the Consensus
D. Decision on all questions are required to be taken in Consensus
Answer: B. It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution of India
Topic 25: Miscellaneous
91. Provision of Article 73 i.e. extent of executive power of the union confers upon the union which of the following phenomenon?
A. Power, jurisdiction and authority
B. Jurisdiction, constituent authority and power
C. Right, authority and jurisdiction
D. Inherent power, authority and jurisdiction
Answer: C. Right, authority and jurisdiction
92. Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law appears in:
A. Article 246
B. Article 265
C. Article 266
D. Article 268
Answer: B. Article 265
93. The concept of ‘Judicial Activism’ has gained currency in India in:
A. 1960’s
B. 1980’s
C. 1990’s
D. 1970’s
Answer: B. 1980’s
94. Which of the following section of Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional by The Supreme Court of India?
A. Section 121
B. Section 303
C. Section 307
D. Section 366
Answer: B. Section 303
95. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was:
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Jai Prakash Narayan
C. C. Rajgopalachari
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
96. The First Commentary to the Constitution of India is written by:
A. Dr. D. D. Basu
B. Justice Vivian Bose
C. Dr. Bijan Kumar Mukherjee
D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: C. Dr. Bijan Kumar Mukherjee
97. From which of the following Constitutions the Indian Constitution is not borrowed from:
A. Constitution of USA
B. Constitution of Germany
C. Constitution of Canada
D. Constitution of China
Answer: D. Constitution of China
98. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains in the State for the maximum period:
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Six months
D. Nine months
Answer: A. One year
99. Which of the following legislation brought the character of Indian Government from ‘Unitary’ to ‘Federal’? (Repeated)
A. Indian Council Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: C. Government of India Act, 1935
100. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed: (Repeated)
A. there is remedy in court
B. there is remedy in Lok Adalat
C. there is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate
D. None of the above
Answer: D. None of the above
TOPIC-WISE SUMMARY
| Topic No. | Topic Name | Question Numbers |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Preamble | 1-3 |
| 2 | Fundamental Rights | 4-12 |
| 3 | Directive Principles | 13-20 |
| 4 | Fundamental Duties | 21-23 |
| 5 | Centre-State Relations | 24-29 |
| 6 | Parliament | 30-41 |
| 7 | President | 42-51 |
| 8 | Vice-President | 52-53 |
| 9 | Governor | 54-58 |
| 10 | Supreme Court | 59-64 |
| 11 | High Courts | 65 |
| 12 | Union Public Service Commission | 66-68 |
| 13 | State Public Service Commission | 69 |
| 14 | Attorney General | 70-71 |
| 15 | Election Commission | 72 |
| 16 | Finance Commission | 73-74 |
| 17 | Schedules | 75-76 |
| 18 | Constitutional Amendments | 77-80 |
| 19 | Amendment Procedure | 81-84 |
| 20 | Writs | 85-86 |
| 21 | National Development Council | 87 |
| 22 | National Capital Territory of Delhi | 88 |
| 23 | Panchayati Raj | 89 |
| 24 | Inter-State Council | 90 |
| 25 | Miscellaneous | 91-100 |