WBCS MAIN 2019 P-5 Polity MCQ & One Liner Questions

WBCS MAIN 2019 P-5 Polity MCQ

WBCS MAIN 2019 P-5 Polity MCQ & One Liner Questions

TOPIC 1: PREAMBLE

1. In which case did Justice Sikri state that the Preamble expresses the grand and noble vision of the Constitution?
Ans: Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

TOPIC 2: NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

2. From which country did India borrow its federal scheme of “Union of States”?
Ans: Canada

TOPIC 3: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

3. When did the Indian Independence Act, 1947 come into force?
Ans: 18th July, 1947

4. When was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held?
Ans: 9th December, 1946

5. On which date was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: 26th November, 1949

TOPIC 4: CITIZENSHIP

6. Which Article describes about a person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be a citizen?
Ans: Article 7

TOPIC 5: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

7. For the purpose of Part III, which of the following is NOT a State – Industrial and Financial Corporation, Kerala Legislative Assembly, NCERT, or ONGC?
Ans: Industrial and Financial Corporation

8. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment under Article 368 was “law” within the meaning of Article 13?
Ans: Golaknath v. State of Punjab

9. To whom does Article 14 guarantee equality before law and equal protection of laws?
Ans: All persons living within the territory of India

10. In which case was it observed that Articles 14, 19 and 21 jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
Ans: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

11. Under which Article is Untouchability abolished and its practice punishable?
Ans: Article 17

12. On which freedom can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State?
Ans: Speech and expression

13. On which ground can Right to freedom of religion NOT be restricted – Health, Morality, Public order, or Security of State?
Ans: Security of State

14. Petitions under Article 32 are subject to Res judicata except which writ?
Ans: Habeas corpus

15. Can fundamental rights under Articles 12-35 be amended?
Ans: Yes, they can be amended

16. By which Amendment was the Right to Property dropped from fundamental rights?
Ans: 44th Amendment

17. In which case was the doctrine against arbitrariness incorporated into equality before law by Justice Bhagwati?
Ans: E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

18. In which case did the Supreme Court observe that “Excessive reservation would be fraud on the Constitution”?
Ans: Balaji v. State of Mysore

19. When a Court declares certain provisions of an Act invalid without affecting the entire Act, which doctrine is applied?
Ans: Doctrine of severability

20. Which is NOT a ground for placing restrictions on freedom of religion – Health, Morality, Public order, or Social justice?
Ans: Social justice

21. What does Article 23 NOT prohibit – beggary, compulsory service for public purposes, forced labour, or traffic in human beings?
Ans: compulsory service for public purposes

22. A citizen holding office of profit cannot accept any title from a foreign State without the consent of whom?
Ans: President

23. Which provision in Part III automatically becomes suspended on proclamation of emergency?
Ans: Article 19

TOPIC 6: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

24. From which country was the concept of Directive Principles borrowed?
Ans: Ireland

25. According to the 86th Amendment, until what age shall the State provide early childhood care and education?
Ans: 6 years

26. Which was NOT inserted in Part IV by the 42nd Amendment – Free legal aid, Workers’ participation in management, Protection of environment, or Organisation of Village Panchayats?
Ans: Organisation of Village Panchayats

TOPIC 7: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

27. Where are the Fundamental Duties enshrined?
Ans: Part IVA, Article 51A

TOPIC 8: PARLIAMENT

28. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
Ans: Vice-President of India

29. What is the term of Rajya Sabha?
Ans: It is a permanent body with one-third members retiring every second year

30. The Parliament of India consists of which three institutions?
Ans: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

31. For how many days can Rajya Sabha withhold a Money Bill?
Ans: Fourteen days

32. How many Anglo-Indian members are nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha?
Ans: 2

33. What is the quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha?
Ans: 25

34. Which House is presided over by a non-Member?
Ans: Rajya Sabha

35. For how long can a person be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament?
Ans: Six months

36. Who takes decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha?
Ans: Speaker

37. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People?
Ans: President

38. What is the maximum interval between two sessions of each House of Parliament?
Ans: Six months

39. Which Article provides for procedure in Parliament with respect to Estimates?
Ans: Article 113

40. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee?
Ans: Speaker of Lok Sabha

TOPIC 9: UNION EXECUTIVE – PRESIDENT

41. Which statement about qualifications for President is incorrect – Citizen of India, Not hold office of profit, Qualified for Lok Sabha membership, or Age 30?
Ans: Age 30 (Correct age is 35)

42. Who discharges the functions of President when both President and Vice-President offices are vacant?
Ans: Chief Justice of India

43. The power of the President to issue an ordinance is what type of power?
Ans: Legislative power

44. In which Houses can impeachment charges against the President be preferred?
Ans: In either House of Parliament

45. What do Articles 155 and 156 deal with?
Ans: President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor

46. The Council of Ministers at the Union remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of which House?
Ans: Lok Sabha

TOPIC 10: STATE EXECUTIVE – GOVERNOR

47. With whom is the Executive Power of the State vested?
Ans: Governor of the State

48. How can the Governor be removed from office?
Ans: By the President at his pleasure

49. On which fund are the salary and allowances of the Governor charged?
Ans: Consolidated Fund of the State

50. Which Article gives the Governor power to grant pardon in certain cases?
Ans: Article 161

TOPIC 11: STATE LEGISLATURE

51. On whose recommendation can the Parliament abolish the Legislative Council in a State?
Ans: The State Legislative Assembly

TOPIC 12: SUPREME COURT AND JUDICIARY

52. Who is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?
Ans: The President of India

53. Under which jurisdiction does the Supreme Court hear disputes between States?
Ans: Original jurisdiction

54. Who first evolved the doctrine of prospective overruling?
Ans: Justice Subba Rao in Golaknath v. State of Punjab

55. By whom can the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court be enlarged?
Ans: The Parliament by law

56. Which Article declares that laws declared by the Supreme Court are binding on all courts?
Ans: Article 141

57. Can the salaries of Supreme Court Judges be reduced during their term?
Ans: No, except during financial emergency

58. Under which jurisdiction does the Supreme Court hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more States?
Ans: Original jurisdiction

TOPIC 13: HIGH COURTS

59. Where can a retired judge of a High Court NOT practise?
Ans: In the High Court from where he has retired

60. What does Article 227 deal with?
Ans: High Court’s power of superintendence

TOPIC 14: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS

61. Which is no longer considered an adequate ground for Proclamation of Emergency – Armed rebellion, External aggression, Internal disturbance, or War?
Ans: Internal disturbance

62. How must a resolution ratifying a Proclamation of Emergency be passed?
Ans: By each House with majority of total membership and 2/3rd majority of members present and voting

TOPIC 15: AMENDMENTS

63. When must a Constitutional Amendment be ratified by at least half of the State Legislatures?
Ans: When it makes changes in Special Provisions

64. Which Amendment inserted the words “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under this Article” in Article 368?
Ans: 24th Amendment

65. What type of majority is required to amend the Constitution for changing a State’s name or creating a new State?
Ans: Simple majority under Articles 107 and 108

66. What did the 42nd Amendment NOT do – Add words to Preamble, Add Fundamental Duties, Delete Right to Property from Article 19, or Amend Article 353?
Ans: Delete Right to Property from Article 19

67. Which Amendment enabled the State to impose restrictions on Article 19 in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India?
Ans: 16th Amendment

68. Which Amendment added anti-defection provisions to the Constitution?
Ans: 42nd Amendment (as per official key; actually 52nd Amendment)

69. By which Amendment was the National Capital Territory of Delhi constituted?
Ans: 69th Amendment

TOPIC 16: CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS

70. Which Article provides for adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
Ans: Article 262

71. Who can establish additional courts for matters in the Union List?
Ans: Parliament

72. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly” – which doctrine does this statement epitomize?
Ans: Colourable legislation

73. A legislation enacted by a State Legislature falls in which category of legislation?
Ans: Supreme legislation

74. Which statement is NOT true about legislative powers?
Ans: In certain exceptional circumstances, State Legislatures can make law on subjects in the Union List

75. On which subjects can both Parliament and State Legislatures legislate – Criminal law, Economic planning, Marriage contracts, or All of the above?
Ans: All of the above

76. How can the Union Government assign any function to the States?
Ans: With the consent of the concerned State Government

77. Which Article deals with repugnancy between Central and State laws?
Ans: Article 254

78. With whom are the residuary powers reserved in the Constitution?
Ans: Union

79. How can a change in distribution of powers between Centre and States be done?
Ans: By amending the Constitution

80. In respect of which areas can Parliament legislate on subjects of all three Lists?
Ans: Union Territories

TOPIC 17: FINANCE COMMISSION

81. How many members does the Finance Commission consist of?
Ans: Chairman and four other members

82. How often is the Finance Commission constituted by the President?
Ans: Every 5 years

TOPIC 18: PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSIONS

83. Under Article 321, who has the power to extend functions of the UPSC?
Ans: Parliament

84. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that reasons must be communicated to Legislature if PSC advice is not accepted?
Ans: Jai Shankar Prasad v. State of Bihar

85. In which matters does UPSC have advisory power – Recruitment methods, Disciplinary matters, or Both?
Ans: Both

86. What is the term of members of a State Public Service Commission?
Ans: 6 years

87. Where are provisions relating to UPSC and State PSCs contained?
Ans: Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 315-323

88. Who conducts the enquiry for removal of a State PSC member on grounds of misbehaviour?
Ans: Supreme Court of India

89. To whom does the UPSC submit its annual report?
Ans: The President

TOPIC 19: PANCHAYATI RAJ

90. What is the tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika?
Ans: 5 years, unless dissolved earlier

91. Elections to Gram Panchayats are conducted by which method?
Ans: Direct on the basis of adult franchise

TOPIC 20: UNION TERRITORIES

92. How is a Union Territory administered?
Ans: By the President through an administrator called the Lieutenant Governor

TOPIC 21: SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION

93. What does the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deal with?
Ans: Defections

TOPIC 22: ELECTION COMMISSION

94. For which all bodies is the Election Commission responsible for conducting elections?
Ans: Parliament, State Legislature, Offices of President and Vice President

TOPIC 23: DOCTRINE OF PLEASURE

95. In which Article was the Doctrine of Pleasure introduced?
Ans: Article 310

TOPIC 24: CONSOLIDATED FUND

96. On which fund shall any sum required to satisfy any court judgment, decree or award be charged?
Ans: Consolidated Fund of India

TOPIC 25: JUDICIAL REVIEW

97. On which grounds can judicial review of proclamation under Article 356 lie – Extraneous considerations, Mala fide exercise, Lack of bona fide, or All of the above?
Ans: All of the above

TOPIC SUMMARY

SL No.Topic NameNew Serial Numbers
1Preamble1
2Nature of Indian Constitution2
3Constituent Assembly3-5
4Citizenship6
5Fundamental Rights7-23
6Directive Principles of State Policy24-26
7Fundamental Duties27
8Parliament28-40
9Union Executive – President41-46
10State Executive – Governor47-50
11State Legislature51
12Supreme Court and Judiciary52-58
13High Courts59-60
14Emergency Provisions61-62
15Amendments63-69
16Centre-State Relations70-80
17Finance Commission81-82
18Public Service Commissions83-89
19Panchayati Raj90-91
20Union Territories92
21Schedules of Constitution93
22Election Commission94
23Doctrine of Pleasure95
24Consolidated Fund96
25Judicial Review97

Total Questions: 97

WBCS MAIN 2019 P-5 Polity MCQ

TOPIC 1: PREAMBLE

1. “Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.” Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the case of
(A) In re Kerala Education Bill
(B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(C) In re Berubari Union
(D) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
Ans: (D) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

TOPIC 2: NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

2. The Constitution of India has borrowed its federal scheme of “Union of States” from which country?
(A) United States of America
(B) Canada
(C) Ireland
(D) Russia
Ans: (B) Canada

TOPIC 3: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

3. The Indian Independence Act, 1947, came into force on
(A) 3rd June, 1947
(B) 18th July, 1947
(C) 26th July, 1947
(D) 14th August, 1947
Ans: (B) 18th July, 1947

4. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on
(A) 15th August, 1947
(B) 26th January, 1946
(C) 9th December, 1946
(D) 26th November, 1949
Ans: (C) 9th December, 1946

5. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
(A) 15th August, 1947
(B) 25th August, 1949
(C) 26th November, 1949
(D) 26th January, 1950
Ans: (C) 26th November, 1949

TOPIC 4: CITIZENSHIP

6. Which of the following Articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 6
(C) Article 7
(D) Article 8
Ans: (C) Article 7

TOPIC 5: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

7. For the purpose of Part III of the Constitution, which of the following are not State?
(A) Industrial and Financial Corporation
(B) Kerala Legislative Assembly
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(D) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
Ans: (A) Industrial and Financial Corporation

8. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was “law” within the meaning of Article 13?
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(D) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
Ans: (C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

9. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to
(A) all persons living within the territory of India
(B) all citizens living in India
(C) all persons domiciled in India
(D) all persons natural as well as artificial
Ans: (A) all persons living within the territory of India

10. In which of the following cases was it observed that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Jagannath v. Union of India
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
Ans: (C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

11. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 18
Ans: (C) Article 17

12. On which one of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State?
(A) Speech and expression
(B) Peaceful assembly
(C) Association or Union
(D) Movement
Ans: (A) Speech and expression

13. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
(A) Health
(B) Morality
(C) Public order
(D) Security of State
Ans: (D) Security of State

14. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except
(A) Certiorari
(B) Habeas corpus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo warranto
Ans: (B) Habeas corpus

15. The fundamental rights under Articles 12-35
(A) are absolutely flexible
(B) can be amended
(C) not justiciable
(D) cannot be amended
Ans: (B) can be amended

16. The right to property was dropped from the list of fundamental rights by the
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) 44th Amendment

17. In which of the following cases the doctrine against arbitrariness was incorporated into equality before law by Justice Bhagwati?
(A) Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
(B) D. K. Bakshi v. Union of India
(C) E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
(D) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India
Ans: (C) E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

18. “Excessive reservation would be fraud on the Constitution of India” was observed by the Supreme Court in
(A) Ajit Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) Balaji v. State of Mysore
(C) Devdasan v. Union of India
(D) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
Ans: (B) Balaji v. State of Mysore

19. When a Court declares certain provisions of an Act invalid, it does not affect the validity of the entire Act, according to
(A) Doctrine of eclipse
(B) Doctrine of prospective overruling
(C) Doctrine of severability
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) Doctrine of severability

20. Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is not a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
(A) Health
(B) Morality
(C) Public order
(D) Social justice
Ans: (D) Social justice

21. Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit
(A) beggary
(B) compulsory service for public purposes
(C) forced labour
(D) traffic in human beings
Ans: (B) compulsory service for public purposes

22. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or trust under the State, cannot accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of the
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President
Ans: (D) President

23. Which of the following provisions in Part III of the Constitution automatically becomes suspended on proclamation of emergency?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
Ans: (B) Article 19

TOPIC 6: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

24. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of Directive Principles from
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Constitution of Ireland
(C) Constitution of Switzerland
(D) Constitution of United States of America
Ans: (B) Constitution of Ireland

25. According to the 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete
(A) age of 3 years
(B) age of 6 years
(C) age of 7 years
(D) age of 12 years
Ans: (B) age of 6 years

26. Which of the following were not inserted in Part IV of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment?
(A) Free legal aid to economically backward classes.
(B) Participation of workers in the management of organization engaged in any industry.
(C) Protection and improvement of environment.
(D) Organisation of Village Panchayats.
Ans: (D) Organisation of Village Panchayats.

TOPIC 7: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

27. Fundamental Duties are enshrined in
(A) Part IV, Article 51
(B) Part IVA, Article 51
(C) Part IV, Article 51A
(D) Part IVA, Article 51A
Ans: (D) Part IVA, Article 51A

TOPIC 8: PARLIAMENT

28. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
(A) the President of India
(B) the Vice-President of India
(C) the Speaker of the House of the People
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B) the Vice-President of India

29. Rajya Sabha has a term of
(A) five years
(B) six years
(C) ten years
(D) it is a permanent body in which one-third of the members retire after every second year
Ans: (D) it is a permanent body in which one-third of the members retire after every second year

30. The Parliament of India consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the Prime Minister
Ans: (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

31. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) fourteen days
(B) one month
(C) three months
(D) six months
Ans: (A) fourteen days

32. The President nominates _ Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 7
Ans: (B) 2

33. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 126
Ans: (A) 25

34. Which of these Houses is presided over by a non-Member?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) All of the above
Ans: (B) Rajya Sabha

35. A person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for the maximum period of
(A) one month
(B) three months
(C) six months
(D) one year
Ans: (C) six months

36. Decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha are taken by the
(A) Parliamentary Secretary
(B) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker
Ans: (D) Speaker

37. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People?
(A) Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Council of Ministers
Ans: (C) President

38. What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of each House of the Parliament?
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) One year
Ans: (B) Six months

39. Which Article provides for procedure in Parliament with respect to Estimates?
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 111
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
Ans: (C) Article 113

40. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

TOPIC 9: UNION EXECUTIVE – PRESIDENT

41. In the context of qualifications for contesting Presidential elections in India, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) He should be a citizen of India.
(B) He should not hold office of profit.
(C) He should be qualified to be elected to the House of the People.
(D) He should be aged 30.
Ans: (D) He should be aged 30.

42. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Leader of the majority party in the Parliament
(C) Senior-most amongst the Governors of States
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (A) Chief Justice of India

43. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) constituent power
(B) executive power
(C) judicial power
(D) legislative power
Ans: (D) legislative power

44. Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred
(A) only in the Council of States
(B) only in the House of the People
(C) in either House of the Parliament
(D) only in joint session of the Parliament
Ans: (C) in either House of the Parliament

45. Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution deal with
(A) Election Commission
(B) Inter-State Commerce Commission
(C) Legislative Councils
(D) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor
Ans: (D) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor

46. The Council of Ministers at the Union remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Ans: (A) Lok Sabha

TOPIC 10: STATE EXECUTIVE – GOVERNOR

47. The Executive Power of the State is vested with
(A) People of the State
(B) Chief Minister of the State
(C) Governor of the State
(D) State Legislature
Ans: (C) Governor of the State

48. The Governor can be removed from the office
(A) by the President at his pleasure.
(B) by impeachment in Parliament.
(C) on the advice of the Chief Minister.
(D) on a resolution passed by two-third majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
Ans: (A) by the President at his pleasure.

49. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Contingency Fund of India
(C) Consolidated Fund of the State
(D) (A) and (C) in equal proportion
Ans: (C) Consolidated Fund of the State

50. Which provision of the Constitution gives the Governor of a State power to grant pardon in certain cases?
(A) Article 151
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 161
(D) Article 165
Ans: (C) Article 161

TOPIC 11: STATE LEGISLATURE

51. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
(A) the State Legislative Assembly
(B) the Governor
(C) the President
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) the State Legislative Assembly

TOPIC 12: SUPREME COURT AND JUDICIARY

52. Who among the following is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Governor of a State
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) All of the above
Ans: (A) The President of India

53. Disputes between States in India comes to the Supreme Court under its
(A) advisory jurisdiction
(B) appellate jurisdiction
(C) original jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) original jurisdiction

54. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first evolved by Justice Subba Rao in
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(D) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Ans: (A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

55. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be enlarged by
(A) the Parliament by law
(B) the Parliament by resolution
(C) the President
(D) the President in consultation with Chief Justice of India
Ans: (A) the Parliament by law

56. Which Article lays down that the laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding on all Courts in India?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 142
(D) Article 143
Ans: (B) Article 141

57. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India
(A) are fixed by the President of India.
(B) can never be reduced under any circumstances.
(C) can be reduced during their term of office.
(D) cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during financial emergency.
Ans: (D) cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during financial emergency.

58. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States can be heard by the Supreme Court of India under its
(A) original jurisdiction
(B) appellate jurisdiction
(C) writ jurisdiction
(D) advisory jurisdiction
Ans: (A) original jurisdiction

TOPIC 13: HIGH COURTS

59. A retired judge of a High Court cannot practise
(A) in any High Court in India
(B) in the High Court from where he has retired
(C) in the Supreme Court
(D) All of the above
Ans: (B) in the High Court from where he has retired

60. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) High Court’s power of superintendence
(B) judicial review
(C) powers of the Speaker
(D) election of the Vice President
Ans: (A) High Court’s power of superintendence

TOPIC 14: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS

61. Which of the following is no longer considered an adequate ground for the issue of Proclamation of Emergency?
(A) Armed rebellion
(B) External aggression
(C) Internal disturbance
(D) War
Ans: (C) Internal disturbance

62. A resolution ratifying a Proclamation of Emergency requires to be passed
(A) by either House of Parliament.
(B) by Lok Sabha.
(C) by both Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting.
(D) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings with majority of total membership of each House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting.
Ans: (D) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings with majority of total membership of each House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting.

TOPIC 15: AMENDMENTS

63. A Constitutional Amendment shall also be ratified by Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolution if it is meant to make any change in
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Special Provisions
Ans: (D) Special Provisions

64. Which of the following Amendments to the Constitution inserted the words “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under this Article” in Article 368?
(A) 22nd Amendment
(B) 24th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans: (B) 24th Amendment

65. When the name of a State is changed or a new State is created, the Constitution is required to be amended by the Parliament by a
(A) simple majority as required under Articles 107 and 108.
(B) majority of total members of both the Houses under Article 368.
(C) special majority under Article 368.
(D) special majority after obtaining the opinion of the concerned State Legislature under Article 3.
Ans: (A) simple majority as required under Articles 107 and 108.

66. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment did not
(A) add the words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’ and ‘integrity’ to the Preamble.
(B) add fundamental duties.
(C) delete the right to property clause from Article 19.
(D) amend Article 353 relating to Proclamation of Emergency.
Ans: (C) delete the right to property clause from Article 19.

67. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments was enacted to deal with issues of national integration in the 1960s, enabling the State to impose by law reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the fundamental right to freedom guaranteed in Article 19 in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India?
(A) 15th Amendment
(B) 16th Amendment
(C) 17th Amendment
(D) State was never given such power
Ans: (B) 16th Amendment

68. Which of the following Amendments added anti-defection provisions in the Constitution?
(A) 41st Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Ans: (B) 42nd Amendment
(Note: The anti-defection provisions were actually added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, but since it is not an option, the 42nd Amendment is marked as per the official answer key.)

69. National Capital Territory of Delhi was constituted by
(A) Ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor.
(B) Ordinance promulgated by the President.
(C) 71st Amendment.
(D) 69th Amendment.
Ans: (D) 69th Amendment.

TOPIC 16: CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS

50. Which provision of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264
Ans: (C) Article 262

53. Who among the following can establish additional courts for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter concerned in the Union List?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Concerned State Legislature
(C) High Court of the concerned State
(D) Parliament
Ans: (D) Parliament

62. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. This statement epitomizes the doctrine of
(A) ancillary powers
(B) colourable legislation
(C) implied powers
(D) pith and substance
Ans: (B) colourable legislation

64. A legislation enacted by a State Legislature falls in the category of __ legislation.
(A) autonomous
(B) delegated
(C) subordinate
(D) supreme
Ans: (D) supreme

65. Which of the following is not true?
(A) Parliament has exclusive power to make law on any matter in the Union List.
(B) Parliament and State Legislatures have power to make law on any matter in the Concurrent List.
(C) In certain exceptional circumstances, State Legislatures can make law on the subject given in the Union List.
(D) Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List in certain circumstances.
Ans: (C) In certain exceptional circumstances, State Legislatures can make law on the subject given in the Union List.

66. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on
(A) criminal law and procedure
(B) economic and social planning
(C) marriage, contracts and torts
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D) All of the above

67. The Union Government can assign any function to the States
(A) on the recommendation of the Parliament.
(B) on the directive of the President.
(C) on its own discretion.
(D) with the consent of the concerned State Government.
Ans: (D) with the consent of the concerned State Government.

68. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III
Ans: (B) Article 254

69. The Constitution reserves the residuary powers in the
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Union
(D) States
Ans: (C) Union

70. A change in distribution of powers between the Centre and the States can be done by
(A) the Union Government
(B) the States by themselves
(C) amending the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) amending the Constitution

74. The Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects of all three Lists in respect of
(A) Backward areas
(B) Hill areas
(C) Scheduled areas
(D) Union Territories
Ans: (D) Union Territories

TOPIC 17: FINANCE COMMISSION

73. Finance Commission consists of
(A) Chairman and three other members
(B) Chairman and four other members
(C) Four whole time members
(D) Five members
Ans: (B) Chairman and four other members

94. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Ans: (D) 5 years

TOPIC 18: PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSIONS

45. Under Article 321 of the Constitution, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the
(A) Chairman of the Commission
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Parliament
(D) President
Ans: (C) Parliament

56. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the reasons have to be communicated to the Legislature by the Government if the advice of the Public Service Commission has not been accepted?
(A) Asha Kaul v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
(B) H. Mukherjee v. Union of India
(C) Jai Shankar Prasad v. State of Bihar
(D) Jagtar Singh v. Director, Central Bureau of Investigation
Ans: (C) Jai Shankar Prasad v. State of Bihar

84. The Union Public Service Commission has advisory power in the following matters:
(A) Methods of recruitment to civil service
(B) Disciplinary matters affecting a public servant
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) Both of the above

85. The term of the members of a State Public Service Commission is of
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 10 years
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B) 6 years

89. Provisions relating to Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions are contained in
(A) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 315-323
(B) Part XIV Chapter II, Articles 315-323
(C) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 308-318
(D) Part XIV Chapter II, Articles 308-318
Ans: (A) Part XIV Chapter I, Articles 315-323

90. A member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after the enquiry has been held by
(A) Joint Parliamentary Committee.
(B) Committee constituted by the Governor of the concerned State.
(C) High Court of the concerned State.
(D) Supreme Court of India.
Ans: (D) Supreme Court of India.

96. The Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report on its work to
(A) the Chief Justice of India
(B) the Parliament
(C) the President
(D) the Union Home Minister
Ans: (C) the President

TOPIC 19: PANCHAYATI RAJ

86. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years, unless dissolved earlier
(D) co-extensive with the term of legislative assembly
Ans: (C) 5 years, unless dissolved earlier

87. Election to the Gram Panchayats are
(A) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
(B) by indirect method
(C) by Legislature of the States
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise

TOPIC 20: UNION TERRITORIES

88. A Union Territory is administered by
(A) the Governor of the territory.
(B) the President of India directly.
(C) the President of India through an administrator appointed by him called the Lieutenant Governor.
(D) the Chief Minister of the territory and his Council of Ministers.
Ans: (C) the President of India through an administrator appointed by him called the Lieutenant Governor.

TOPIC 21: SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION

91. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
(A) defections
(B) the Election Commission
(C) the Finance Commission
(D) Other Backward Classes
Ans: (A) defections

TOPIC 22: ELECTION COMMISSION

97. The Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) Offices of President and Vice President
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D) All of the above

TOPIC 23: DOCTRINE OF PLEASURE

51. Doctrine of pleasure was introduced in
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 317
(D) Article 318
Ans: (A) Article 310

TOPIC 24: CONSOLIDATED FUND

46. Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal shall be charged on
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Fund of Ministry of Law & Justice
(C) Fund of Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) Prime Minister’s Relief Fund
Ans: (A) Consolidated Fund of India

TOPIC 25: JUDICIAL REVIEW

72. Judicial review of proclamation under Article 356 would lie on any one of the following grounds:
(A) The proclamation has been made upon the consideration which is extraneous or irrelevant.
(B) Exercise of the power under Article 356 is mala fide.
(C) A statutory order which lacks bona fide characteristics.
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D) All of the above

TOPIC 26: CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS (MISCELLANEOUS)

15. For the first time, which Constitutional Amendment made it clear that ‘State’ in clauses (a) to (e) of Article 3 of the Constitution includes ‘Union Territories’?
(A) 17th
(B) 18th
(C) 19th
(D) 20th
Ans: (B) 18th

TOPIC SUMMARY

SL No.Topic NameNew Serial Numbers
1Preamble1
2Nature of Indian Constitution2
3Constituent Assembly3-5
4Citizenship6
5Fundamental Rights7-23
6Directive Principles of State Policy24-26
7Fundamental Duties27
8Parliament28-40
9Union Executive – President41-46
10State Executive – Governor47-50
11State Legislature51
12Supreme Court and Judiciary52-58
13High Courts59-60
14Emergency Provisions61-62
15Amendments63-69
16Centre-State Relations50, 53, 62, 64-70, 74
17Finance Commission73, 94
18Public Service Commissions45, 56, 84, 85, 89, 90, 96
19Panchayati Raj86-87
20Union Territories88
21Schedules of Constitution91
22Election Commission97
23Doctrine of Pleasure51
24Consolidated Fund46
25Judicial Review72
26Constitutional Amendments (Miscellaneous)15

Total Questions: 97