WBCS MAIN 2020 P-5 Polity MCQ & One Liner Questions

WBCS MAIN 2020 P-5 Polity MCQ

WBCS MAIN 2020 P-5 Polity One Liner Questions

TOPIC 1: PREAMBLE

1. Which country’s Preamble inspired the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Ans: U.S. Constitution

2. Which Amendment Act added the terms “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity” to the Preamble?
Ans: 42nd Amendment Act

TOPIC 2: NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

3. Which feature indicates that real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?
Ans: Parliamentary Democracy

4. How is India described in the Constitution – Federation of States, Union of States, Quasi federal State, or Unitary State?
Ans: Union of States

5. Which is the longest written constitution in the world?
Ans: The Constitution of India

6. Parliamentary Government is also known by which other names?
Ans: All of the above (Responsible Government, Cabinet Government, Westminster forms of Government)

TOPIC 3: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

7. When was the Indian Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: 26th November, 1949

8. How much time did the Constituent Assembly take to complete its work?
Ans: About three years

9. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
Ans: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

TOPIC 4: CITIZENSHIP

10. Which Part of the Constitution describes citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
Ans: Part II

11. From which country is the concept of single citizenship adopted?
Ans: The British Constitution

TOPIC 5: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

12. Which Article states that the State shall not deny ‘equality before law’ or ‘equal protection of laws’?
Ans: Article 14

13. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is included in which Fundamental Right?
Ans: Right to Equality

14. Which Article abolishes “Untouchability”?
Ans: Article 17

15. How many rights are guaranteed under Article 19?
Ans: 6

16. Which Articles contain the right to religious freedom?
Ans: Articles 25-28

17. Which Article provides for protection against arbitrary arrest and detention?
Ans: Article 22

18. Which Article deals with “Right against exploitation” and prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour?
Ans: Article 23-24 (Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour)

19. Article 21-A providing free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years is what type of right?
Ans: Fundamental Right

20. Which Amendment delinked the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights?
Ans: 44th Amendment

21. As per the Indian Constitution, the Right to Property is now what type of right?
Ans: Legal Right

22. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
Ans: Article 32

23. Which right guarantees every resident the fundamental right to approach the Supreme Court?
Ans: Right to Constitutional Remedies

TOPIC 6: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

24. In which Part of the Indian Constitution are the Directive Principles of State Policy included?
Ans: Part IV (Articles 36 to 51)

25. Can a citizen move court if the State fails to enforce Directive Principles?
Ans: No Court

TOPIC 7: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

26. Which Amendment incorporated Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
Ans: 42nd Amendment Act

27. Which committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties?
Ans: Swaran Singh Committee

28. Where are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution?
Ans: Part IV A

29. How many Fundamental Duties are included in the Indian Constitution?
Ans: 11

30. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties – Safeguarding public property, abiding by the Constitution, cherishing noble ideals?
Ans: All the above

TOPIC 8: PARLIAMENT

31. The Parliament of India consists of which institutions?
Ans: The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

32. Where can a Money Bill be introduced?
Ans: Only in the Lok Sabha

33. Under which Article are provisions dealing with a Money Bill contained?
Ans: Article 110

34. When can a Bill become an Act of Parliament?
Ans: When the President of India gives his assent to the Bill

35. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha?
Ans: 552

36. How many members are elected to the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories?
Ans: 20

37. In which year was the first general election to the Lok Sabha held?
Ans: 1951-52

38. How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?
Ans: 12

39. What is the number of representatives of the Rajya Sabha from States and Union Territories?
Ans: 238

40. Who chooses the representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha?
Ans: Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly

41. For how many years are members of Rajya Sabha elected?
Ans: 6 years

42. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Ans: The Vice-President of India (ex-officio)

43. How often must the Lok Sabha meet according to Article 85(1)?
Ans: Twice a year with no more than six months between sessions

44. What is the name of the motion to draw attention to a matter of urgent public importance, setting aside normal business?
Ans: Adjournment Motion

45. Where can a motion of no confidence against the Government be introduced?
Ans: Lok Sabha

46. Which Parliamentary Committee consists exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha?
Ans: The Estimates Committee

47. Who appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee?
Ans: Speaker of the Lok Sabha

48. Is the expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India votable in Parliament?
Ans: No, it is not votable in either House

49. Who is known as the Father of the Lok Sabha?
Ans: G.V. Mavalankar

50. Who is a Pro-tem Speaker in the Lok Sabha?
Ans: The senior most member presiding over the first meeting after general elections until the Speaker is elected

51. When can Parliament make a law on a matter in the State List?
Ans: When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority

TOPIC 9: UNION EXECUTIVE – PRESIDENT

52. Which Article states that there shall be a President of India?
Ans: Article 52

53. What are the qualifications for election as President of India?
Ans: Citizen of India, age 35 years, qualified to become member of Lok Sabha

54. Who comprises the electoral college for electing the President?
Ans: Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States

55. How can the office of the President fall vacant?
Ans: In case of death of President or if President resigns

56. In which Houses can impeachment of the President be initiated?
Ans: In either House of Parliament

57. The Constitutional position of the President of India is comparable to which institution?
Ans: The British Monarch

58. Who discharges the functions of the President if both President and Vice-President posts fall vacant?
Ans: The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

TOPIC 10: PRIME MINISTER AND COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

59. How should a minister become a member of the house within 6 months of appointment?
Ans: Either by election or nomination

TOPIC 11: STATE EXECUTIVE – GOVERNOR

60. How is the Governor of a State appointed?
Ans: Appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President

61. How is the Chief Minister of a State appointed?
Ans: Appointed by the Governor

62. Who is the highest law officer in the States under Article 165?
Ans: Advocate General

TOPIC 12: STATE LEGISLATURE

63. How can the Legislative Council in a State be abolished?
Ans: Parliament may by law abolish it after the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect

TOPIC 13: SUPREME COURT AND JUDICIARY

64. Who is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
Ans: The Supreme Court

65. Under which Article does the Supreme Court have original jurisdiction in disputes between Centre and States?
Ans: Article 131

66. What are the qualifications for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124(3)?
Ans: Citizen of India, distinguished jurist in opinion of President, Judge of HC for 5 years, or Advocate of HC for 10 years

67. When does the Supreme Court tender legal advice to the President?
Ans: When the President asks for it

68. How many Judges of the Supreme Court have been removed through impeachment so far?
Ans: None

69. Which statement about the Supreme Court is not true – it is highest court of appeal, power of Judicial Review is mentioned in Constitution, election disputes of President decided by Supreme Court, it is a Court of Record?
Ans: The power of Judicial Review is mentioned in the Constitution of India (it is implied, not explicitly mentioned)

70. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that Parliament cannot alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?
Ans: Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973

TOPIC 14: HIGH COURTS

71. Which High Court has territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
Ans: Calcutta High Court

72. Which is the oldest High Court established in India in 1862?
Ans: The Calcutta High Court

73. Which is the 25th High Court in India?
Ans: Andhra Pradesh High Court

74. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court?
Ans: The Parliament of India

75. How can a judge of a High Court be removed from office?
Ans: By the President on the basis of a resolution passed by Parliament by two-thirds majority in each House

76. If a High Court judgement is issued in a state’s official language, a translation in which language must also be made available?
Ans: English

TOPIC 15: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS

77. Under which Article is the Declaration of National Emergency mentioned?
Ans: Article 352

78. During the Proclamation of Emergency, the term of Lok Sabha may be extended for a period not exceeding?
Ans: 1 year

TOPIC 16: AMENDMENTS

79. Which Article deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?
Ans: Article 368

80. A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced in which House?
Ans: In either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha (prior recommendation of President not required)

81. Which Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years?
Ans: 61st Amendment Act, 1989

82. Which Amendment introduced GST in India from July 2017?
Ans: 101st Amendment Act

83. Which Amendment established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
Ans: 89th Amendment Act, 2003

84. Which Amendment provided for free and compulsory education to children between 6 and 14 years?
Ans: 86th Amendment Act

85. Which Amendment introduced the three-tier Panchayati Raj system?
Ans: 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992

86. Which Amendment made Sikkim a full-fledged state of India?
Ans: 36th Constitutional Amendment Act

87. Which Amendment discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in Parliament and State legislatures?
Ans: 104th Amendment Act

TOPIC 17: SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION

88. Which Article declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union?
Ans: Article 343

89. How many languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule after the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003?
Ans: 22

90. Which languages were added by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003?
Ans: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali

91. Sanskrit is the 2nd official language of which state?
Ans: Uttarakhand

TOPIC 18: PANCHAYATI RAJ

92. How many seats are reserved for women in the Panchayati Raj System?
Ans: 1/3 of seats and 1/3rd offices of Chairperson at all levels

TOPIC 19: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

93. Who is the highest law officer of India under Article 76?
Ans: The Attorney General of India

94. Which Article envisages that there shall be an Attorney General of India?
Ans: Article 76

95. Who appoints the members of the Election Commission?
Ans: President of India

96. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission?
Ans: The Governor of a State

97. What is Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and who introduced it?
Ans: Litigation to secure public interest, introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Ayer

TOPIC 20: STATE REORGANISATION

98. In which year did Goa become the 25th State of India?
Ans: 1987

99. When was the special status under Article 370 revoked from Jammu and Kashmir?
Ans: August, 2019

TOPIC 21: MISCELLANEOUS

100. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Yojana concerns which of the following – prevention of gender-based elimination, survival and protection of girl child, education and participation of girl child?
Ans: All the above concerns

TOPIC SUMMARY

SL No.Topic NameQuestion Numbers
1Preamble1-2
2Nature of Indian Constitution3-6
3Constituent Assembly7-9
4Citizenship10-11
5Fundamental Rights12-23
6Directive Principles24-25
7Fundamental Duties26-30
8Parliament31-51
9Union Executive – President52-58
10Prime Minister and Council of Ministers59
11State Executive – Governor60-62
12State Legislature63
13Supreme Court and Judiciary64-70
14High Courts71-76
15Emergency Provisions77-78
16Amendments79-87
17Schedules of Constitution88-91
18Panchayati Raj92
19Constitutional Bodies93-97
20State Reorganisation98-99
21Miscellaneous100

Total Questions: 100

WBCS MAIN 2020 P-5 Polity MCQ

TOPIC 1: PREAMBLE

1. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Preamble of the Constitution of which country?
(A) U.S. Constitution
(B) Swiss Constitution
(C) British Constitution
(D) Constitution of Canada
Ans: (A) U.S. Constitution

2. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution has been amended and the terms “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity” have been added by which Amendment Act?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act
(B) 43rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 46th Amendment Act
Ans: (A) 42nd Amendment Act

TOPIC 2: NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

3. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister in India?
(A) Universal adult suffrage
(B) Federalism
(C) Representative legislature
(D) Parliamentary Democracy
Ans: (D) Parliamentary Democracy

4. Choose the correct statement stated in the Constitution of India:
(A) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Federation of States.
(B) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
(C) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Quasi federal State.
(D) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary State.
Ans: (B) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.

5. Which is the longest written constitution in the world?
(A) The Constitution of the United States
(B) The Constitution of India
(C) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic of France
(D) The Constitution of Switzerland
Ans: (B) The Constitution of India

6. Choose the most appropriate alternative: Parliamentary Government is also known as
(A) Responsible Government
(B) Cabinet Government
(C) Westminster forms of Government
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D) All of the above

TOPIC 3: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

7. When was the Indian Constitution first adopted?
(A) The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th January, 1950.
(B) The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th January, 1949.
(C) The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949.
(D) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November, 1948.
Ans: (C) The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949.

8. Choose the correct answer:
(A) The Constituent Assembly of India took about one year to complete its work.
(B) The Constituent Assembly of India took about two years to complete its work.
(C) The Constituent Assembly of India took about three years to complete its work.
(D) The Constituent Assembly of India took about four years to complete its work.
Ans: (C) The Constituent Assembly of India took about three years to complete its work.

9. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar
(D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Ans: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

TOPIC 4: CITIZENSHIP

10. Which part of the Constitution of India describes citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Ans: (B) Part II

11. Fill in the blank: In India the concept of single citizenship is adopted from
(A) The French Constitution
(B) The Swiss Constitution
(C) The Constitution of United States of America
(D) The British Constitution
Ans: (D) The British Constitution

TOPIC 5: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

12. Which Article in the Indian Constitution states that the state shall not deny to any person ‘equality before the law’ or the ‘equal protection of the laws’ within the territory of India?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 16
Ans: (B) Article 14

13. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is a fundamental right and is included in which Fundamental Right?
(A) Right against Exploitation
(B) Right to Freedom of Religion
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Equality
Ans: (D) Right to Equality

14. “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 21
Ans: (A) Article 17

15. How many rights are guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans: (C) 6

16. Which of the following Articles contain the right to religious freedom enshrined in the Constitution of India?
(A) Art 32-35
(B) Art 29-30
(C) Art 25-28
(D) Art 23-24
Ans: (C) Art 25-28

17. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for protection against arbitrary arrest and detention?
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 23
(C) Article 24
(D) Article 25
Ans: (A) Article 22

18. Choose the correct statement with respect to “Right against exploitation” under the Indian Constitution.
(A) Freedom to pay taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
(B) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
(C) Protection of minority schools.
(D) Compulsory military service.
Ans: (B) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

19. Article 21- A of the Constitution of India provides for free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years
(A) is a Fundamental Right
(B) is a Legal Right
(C) is a Moral Right
(D) is included in the Directive Principles of state policy
Ans: (A) is a Fundamental Right

20. Choose the correct Amendment to the Indian Constitution which has delinked the Right to Property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
(A) 43rd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 46th Amendment
Ans: (B) 44th Amendment

21. As per the Indian Constitution the Right to Property is a
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Natural Right
(C) Economic Right
(D) Legal Right
Ans: (D) Legal Right

22. Which Article in the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court of India to issue writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warrant and certiorari whichever may be appropriate for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 227
(D) Article 33
Ans: (A) Article 32

23. Which one of the following right under the Indian Constitution guarantees the fundamental right to every resident of a country?
(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

TOPIC 6: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

24. The Directive Principles of State Policy (Art. 36 to Art. 51) is included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part V
(D) Part VI
Ans: (B) Part IV

25. If the Government of a State fails to enforce the Directive Principles of the State Policy, a citizen can move which among the following courts to file a writ petition to get them enforced?
(A) District Court
(B) No Court
(C) High Court
(D) Supreme Court
Ans: (B) No Court

TOPIC 7: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

26. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
(A) 41st Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 43rd Amendment Act
(D) 44th Amendment Act
Ans: (B) 42nd Amendment Act

27. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Swaran Singh Committee
(B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Raghavan Committee
(D) Malhotra Committee
Ans: (A) Swaran Singh Committee

28. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in
(A) Part III of the Constitution of India.
(B) Part IV of the Constitution of India.
(C) Part IV A of the Constitution of India.
(D) Schedule IV-A of the Constitution of India.
Ans: (C) Part IV A of the Constitution of India.

29. How many Fundamental Duties are included in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Ans: (B) 11

30. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian Citizen?
(A) Safeguarding public property.
(B) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
(C) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
(D) All the above
Ans: (D) All the above

TOPIC 8: PARLIAMENT

31. Choose the correct option: India has adopted the Parliamentary form of democracy also called the Westminster model. The Parliament consists of
(A) the President and the Lok Sabha
(B) the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) the President and the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) the Lok Sabha only
Ans: (C) the President and the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

32. Choose the correct option:
(A) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
(B) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.
(C) A Money Bill may be introduced in both Houses of Parliament.
(D) A Money Bill cannot be endorsed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Ans: (A) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

33. Which Article in the Indian Constitution contains provisions dealing with a Money Bill?
(A) Article 100
(B) Article 110
(C) Article 122
(D) Article 125
Ans: (B) Article 110

34. Fill in the blank: A Bill cannot become an Act of Parliament in India, unless and until
(A) it is passed by the Lok Sabha
(B) it is passed by the Rajya Sabha
(C) it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) the President of India gives his assent to the Bill
Ans: (D) the President of India gives his assent to the Bill

35. As per the Constitution of India, what is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha?
(A) 530
(B) 540
(C) 550
(D) 552
Ans: (D) 552

36. As per the Constitution of India how many members are elected in the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 30
(D) 35
Ans: (A) 20

37. When was the first general election to the Lok Sabha in India held?
(A) 1950-51
(B) 1951-52
(C) 1953-54
(D) 1954-55
Ans: (B) 1951-52

38. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 20
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 12
Ans: (D) 12

39. Choose the number of representatives of the Rajya Sabha from the States and the Union Territories:
(A) 238
(B) 212
(C) 200
(D) 250
Ans: (A) 238

40. Who chooses the representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(B) Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly
(C) Governor
(D) President
Ans: (B) Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly

41. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term consisting of how many years?
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 6 years
Ans: (D) 6 years

42. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or Council of States?
(A) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(B) The leader of the majority party in the Rajya Sabha.
(C) The leader of the opposition party in the Rajya Sabha.
(D) The person elected from among the elected members of the Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of members present and voting.
Ans: (A) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

43. According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha must meet at least how many times?
(A) Three times each year with no more than four months between sessions.
(B) At least once a year.
(C) Four times each year.
(D) Twice a year with no more than six months between sessions.
Ans: (D) Twice a year with no more than six months between sessions.

44. What is the name of the motion to draw the attention of the Lok Sabha to a recent matter of urgent public importance? If admitted it leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(A) Privilege Motion
(B) No Confidence Motion
(C) Calling Attention Motion
(D) Adjournment Motion
Ans: (D) Adjournment Motion

45. A motion of no confidence against the Government can be introduced in
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Neither (A) nor (C)
Ans: (C) Lok Sabha

46. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees consist exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha?
(A) The Public Accounts Committee
(B) The Estimates Committee
(C) The Committee of Public Undertakings
(D) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Ans: (B) The Estimates Committee

47. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is appointed by the
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(B) Prime Minister of India.
(C) President of India.
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Ans: (A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

48. Choose the correct alternative:
(A) The Lok Sabha alone may vote on expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
(B) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is not votable in either House of Parliament.
(C) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is votable in either House of Parliament.
(D) The Rajya Sabha alone may vote on expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Ans: (B) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is not votable in either House of Parliament.

49. Who is known as the Father of the Lok Sabha?
(A) G.V. Mavalankar
(B) Rabi Ray
(C) Balram Jakhar
(D) P.A. Sangma
Ans: (A) G.V. Mavalankar

50. Who is a Pro-tem Speaker in the Lok Sabha?
(A) The first meeting after general election in which the Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha, is held under the senior most member of Parliament is commonly known as Pro-tem Speaker.
(B) A temporary Speaker elected by the House when the Speaker has taken a leave of absence.
(C) The Speaker elected by the House when both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are absent.
(D) The Speaker who presides over a joint session of Parliament.
Ans: (A) The first meeting after general election in which the Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha, is held under the senior most member of Parliament is commonly known as Pro-tem Speaker.

51. When can the Parliament in India make a law on a matter enumerated in the ‘State list’?
(A) When a joint sitting of Parliament passes a resolution to that effect.
(B) When the Lok Sabha by a 2/3rds majority of members present and voting passes a resolution.
(C) When both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha separately passes a resolution.
(D) When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Ans: (D) When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

TOPIC 9: UNION EXECUTIVE – PRESIDENT

52. Which Article of the Constitution of India say that there shall be a President of India?
(A) Art 61
(B) Art 62
(C) Art 74
(D) Art 52
Ans: (D) Art 52

53. What are the qualifications for election as President of India? Choose the correct answer:
(A) (a) Citizen of India (b) Age 35 years (c) Member of Rajya Sabha
(B) (a) Citizen of India (b) Age 30 years (c) Member of Lok Sabha
(C) (a) Citizen of India (b) Age 40 years (c) Holds office of profit
(D) (a) Citizen of India (b) Age 35 years (c) Qualified to become member of Lok Sabha
Ans: (D) (a) Citizen of India (b) Age 35 years (c) Qualified to become member of Lok Sabha

54. Choose the correct alternative: The President of India is elected by the electoral college. The electoral college consists of
(A) (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
(B) (a) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament, and (b) all the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
(C) (a) the elected members of the Lok Sabha, (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies.
(D) (a) the members of the Rajya Sabha, (b) the members of the Legislative Assemblies.
Ans: (A) (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

55. Fill in the blank: The office of the President of India can fall vacant
(A) in case of death of a President
(B) if a President resigns from his post
(C) on the commencement of impeachment in the Lok Sabha
(D) Only (A) and (B)
Ans: (D) Only (A) and (B)

56. Fill in the blank: Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated
(A) only in the Lok Sabha
(B) only in the Rajya Sabha
(C) in either House of Parliament
(D) in the Supreme Court
Ans: (C) in either House of Parliament

57. Fill in the blank: The Constitutional position of the President of India is comparable to
(A) The US President
(B) The British Monarch
(C) The French President
(D) The Russian President
Ans: (B) The British Monarch

58. If the post of both the President and the Vice President of India falls vacant who discharges the functions of the President till the new incumbent is elected?
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
(D) The Attorney General of India
Ans: (C) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

TOPIC 10: PRIME MINISTER AND COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

59. Under the Indian Constitution it is necessary to be a member of a house after 6 months of becoming a minister. In what way should a minister become a member of the house?
(A) By nomination
(B) By election
(C) Either by election or nomination
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) Either by election or nomination

TOPIC 11: STATE EXECUTIVE – GOVERNOR

60. The Head of the Executive in all States is the Governor of the State. How is he appointed?
(A) The Governor is elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult suffrage.
(B) The Governor is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
(C) The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(D) The Governor is appointed by an electoral college like the President of India.
Ans: (C) The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

61. How is the Chief Minister of a State appointed in India?
(A) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor.
(B) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Speaker.
(C) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Chief Justice of the State.
(D) The Chief Minister is appointed by the majority political party in the Legislative Assembly of the State.
Ans: (A) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor.

62. Who is the highest law officer in the States of India under Article 165?
(A) Secretary General of the State
(B) Advocate General
(C) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(D) The Governor of the State
Ans: (B) Advocate General

TOPIC 12: STATE LEGISLATURE

63. Who may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State under the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliament may by law abolish a Legislative Council in a State after the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect.
(B) The State Legislative Assembly may by law provide for the abolition.
(C) The Rajya Sabha may by a resolution provide for the abolition.
(D) The President on the advice of the Council of Ministers may by law provide for the abolition.
Ans: (A) Parliament may by law abolish a Legislative Council in a State after the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect.

TOPIC 13: SUPREME COURT AND JUDICIARY

64. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
(A) The President
(B) The Council of Ministers
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Parliament
Ans: (C) The Supreme Court

65. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to deal with any dispute between the Centre and the State, the Centre and a State on the one side and another State on the other or between two or more States?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 134
Ans: (A) Article 131

66. The qualifications for a person to be appointed as the Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124(3) are
(A) Citizen of India, distinguished jurist in opinion of Ministry of Law, Judge of HC for 5 years, or Advocate of HC for 5 years
(B) Citizen of India, distinguished jurist in opinion of President, Judge of HC for 5 years, or Advocate of HC for 10 years
(C) Citizen of India, Judge of HC for 10 years, Advocate of HC
(D) Citizen of India, distinguished jurist in opinion of President, sitting judge of HC for 10 years
Ans: (B) Citizen of India, distinguished jurist in opinion of President, Judge of HC for 5 years, or Advocate of HC for 10 years

67. Fill in the blank: The Supreme Court of India tenders legal advice to the President of India when
(A) the Cabinet recommends it
(B) the Council of Ministers recommends it
(C) the President asks for it
(D) the Supreme Court wants to tender the advice
Ans: (C) the President asks for it

68. Till now how many Judges of the Supreme Court of India have been removed from office through impeachment?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None
Ans: (D) None

69. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) The Supreme Court in India is the highest court in appeals.
(B) The power of Judicial Review is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
(C) All doubts arising out of or in connection with the election of a President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.
(D) The Supreme Court shall be a Court of Record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
Ans: (B) The power of Judicial Review is mentioned in the Constitution of India.

70. Choose the case in which the Supreme Court by a majority ruled that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution of India, but it could not alter or destroy ‘The basic structure’ of the Constitution.
(A) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
(B) Golaknath Case, 1967
(C) Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(D) A.K. Gopalan Case, 1950
Ans: (C) Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973

TOPIC 14: HIGH COURTS

71. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Orissa High Court
(C) Andhra Pradesh High Court
(D) Madras High Court
Ans: (A) Calcutta High Court

72. Which is the oldest High Court established in India in 1862?
(A) The Bombay High Court
(B) The Calcutta High Court
(C) The Madras High Court
(D) The Allahabad High Court
Ans: (B) The Calcutta High Court

73. Which is the 25th High Court in India?
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Andhra Pradesh High Court
(C) Bombay High Court
(D) Calcutta High Court
Ans: (B) Andhra Pradesh High Court

74. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court?
(A) The Parliament of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Supreme Court of India
(D) The Governor of the State
Ans: (A) The Parliament of India

75. A judge of a High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by
(A) the Governor, if the state legislature passes a resolution to this effect by 2/3rd majority.
(B) The President, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court on the recommendation of the Parliament.
(D) the Chief Justice of the High Court on the recommendation of the State legislature.
Ans: (B) The President, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority in each House of Parliament.

76. If a High Court judgement is issued in a state’s official language a translation in which language must also be made available?
(A) Hindi
(B) Both Hindi and English
(C) Translation not required
(D) English
Ans: (D) English

TOPIC 15: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS

77. The Provision of Declaration of National Emergency is mentioned in which of the following Article?
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 365
Ans: (A) Article 352

78. During the Proclamation of Emergency the term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for a period not exceeding
(A) 2 years
(B) 1 year
(C) 1.5 years
(D) depends on the discretion of the President of India
Ans: (B) 1 year

TOPIC 16: AMENDMENTS

79. Fill in the blank:
According to Article _ “Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this Article”.
(A) 365
(B) 366
(C) 367
(D) 368
Ans: (D) 368

80. Choose the correct alternative: Art. 368 deals with the Constitution amending bills.
(A) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
(B) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Prior recommendation of the President is not required.
(C) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.
(D) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in a joint sitting of Parliament after receiving the assent of the President.
Ans: (B) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Prior recommendation of the President is not required.

81. The sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years in which year?
(A) 1984
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1990
Ans: (C) 1989

82. Which Amendment introduced a national Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India from July, 2017?
(A) 100th Amendment Act
(B) 101st Amendment Act
(C) 102nd Amendment Act
(D) 103rd Amendment Act
Ans: (B) 101st Amendment Act

83. The Constitution 89th Amendment Act, 2003 established:
(A) Right to Education as the Fundamental Right to all the children under 14 years in India.
(B) The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” and the “National Commission for Scheduled Tribes”.
(C) Reservation of seats for women in local bodies.
(D) Three language policy.
Ans: (B) The “National Commission for Scheduled Castes” and the “National Commission for Scheduled Tribes”.

84. Name the Constitutional Amendment Act that was passed to provide free and compulsory education of all children between 6 and 14 years of age.
(A) 86th Amendment Act
(B) 84th Amendment Act
(C) 83rd Amendment Act
(D) 82nd Amendment Act
Ans: (A) 86th Amendment Act

85. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 has introduced
(A) a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States, having population of over 20 lakh.
(B) a federal form of Government.
(C) the term ‘Socialist’ in the Presidency, the Indian Constitution.
(D) reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian Community in the Parliament.
Ans: (A) a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States, having population of over 20 lakh.

86. Which Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of India?
(A) 34th Constitutional Amendment Act
(B) 35th Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act
(D) 37th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (C) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act

87. Which Constitutional Amendment Act discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State legislatures?
(A) 104th Amendment Act
(B) 103rd Amendment Act
(C) 102nd Amendment Act
(D) 101st Amendment Act
Ans: (A) 104th Amendment Act

TOPIC 17: SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION

88. Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union according to which Article in the Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 342
(B) Article 383
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 344
Ans: (C) Article 343

89. The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages, thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the schedule to
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
Ans: (C) 22

90. Which languages were added by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003?
(This question is implied from the previous one – Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali)

91. Sanskrit is the 2nd official language of which state in India?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (C) Uttarakhand

TOPIC 18: PANCHAYATI RAJ

92. How many seats are reserved for women at all levels in the Panchayati Raj System in India?
(A) 1/2 of seats of Panchayati Raj institutions
(B) 1/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj and 1/3rd offices of Chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj institutions
(C) 1/4 of offices of Chairperson of Panchayati Raj institutions
(D) 2/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj institutions
Ans: (B) 1/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj and 1/3rd offices of Chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj institutions

TOPIC 19: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

93. Who is the highest law officer of India under Article 76 of the Constitution of India?
(A) The Solicitor General of India
(B) The Secretary General of the Dept. of Law in Centre
(C) The Attorney General of India
(D) The Vice-President of India
Ans: (C) The Attorney General of India

94. Which Article of the Constitution of India envisages that there shall be an Attorney General of India?
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 76
(C) Article 67
(D) Article 113
Ans: (B) Article 76

95. To ensure free and fair elections the Constitution of India establishes an Election Commission. The members of the Election Commission in the Centre are appointed by whom?
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Vice-President of India
Ans: (A) President of India

96. Who appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission?
(A) The Governor of a State
(B) The Chief Justice of the High Court of the State
(C) The President of India
(D) The Chief Minister of the State
Ans: (A) The Governor of a State

97. Choose the correct statement:
(A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigation undertaken to secure public interest… introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Ayer.
(B) Only Supreme Court in India can entertain Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
(C) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is enshrined in the Constitution of India.
(D) PIL in India has not helped deal with major environmental grievances.
Ans: (A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigation undertaken to secure public interest… introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Ayer.

TOPIC 20: STATE REORGANISATION

98. In which year did Goa become the 25th State of India?
(A) 1987
(B) 1988
(C) 1989
(D) 1990
Ans: (A) 1987

99. The Government of India revoked the special status, or limited autonomy granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir—when?
(A) August, 2019
(B) September, 2019
(C) October, 2019
(D) November, 2019
Ans: (A) August, 2019

TOPIC 21: MISCELLANEOUS

100. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Yojana or in other words, “Save the Girl Child” has been launched to generate awareness and improve the efficiency of welfare services intended for girls in India. The prime concerns of BBBP are
(A) prevention of gender based sex selective elimination.
(B) ensuring survival and protection of the girl child.
(C) ensuring education and participation of the girl child.
(D) All the above concerns.
Ans: (D) All the above concerns.

TOPIC SUMMARY

SL No.Topic NameQuestion Numbers
1Preamble1-2
2Nature of Indian Constitution3-6
3Constituent Assembly7-9
4Citizenship10-11
5Fundamental Rights12-23
6Directive Principles24-25
7Fundamental Duties26-30
8Parliament31-51
9Union Executive – President52-58
10Prime Minister and Council of Ministers59
11State Executive – Governor60-62
12State Legislature63
13Supreme Court and Judiciary64-70
14High Courts71-76
15Emergency Provisions77-78
16Amendments79-87
17Schedules of Constitution88-91
18Panchayati Raj92
19Constitutional Bodies93-97
20State Reorganisation98-99
21Miscellaneous100

Total Questions: 100